Practice Exam A · Cash flow & operating economics
Unit economics, revenue-to-cash bridges, FCFF, funding needs, and forecasting.
20 questions · Suggested pace: 75 minutes.
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Question 1
Medium (4/8)
A subscription business has monthly revenue per customer of $210, gross margin of 70%, and constant monthly customer churn of 3.5%. CAC is $1,400. Use the simplified expected-lifetime model with no discounting, no expansion, and no reactivation; expected lifetime in months is the reciprocal of monthly churn. What is gross-profit LTV divided by CAC, rounded to two decimals?
- 4.29×
- 1.29×
- 0.25×
- 0.33×
- 3.00×
Question 2
Medium (4/8)
A subscription business has monthly revenue per customer of $160, gross margin of 75%, and constant monthly customer churn of 4.0%. CAC is $1,200. Use the simplified expected-lifetime model with no discounting, no expansion, and no reactivation; expected lifetime in months is the reciprocal of monthly churn. What is gross-profit LTV divided by CAC, rounded to two decimals?
- 0.21×
- 3.33×
- 0.40×
- 0.83×
- 2.50×
Question 3
Medium (3/8)
Opening deferred revenue is $92,000. Customers pay $580,000 in advance during the year, and the company recognizes $510,000 of revenue from those contracts and the opening deferred-revenue balance. It also refunds $22,000 for services never delivered; this refund reduces deferred revenue and does not reverse recognized revenue. There are no receivables or other adjustments. What is closing deferred revenue?
- $184,000
- $48,000
- $162,000
- $0
- $140,000
Question 4
Medium (3/8)
Beginning annual recurring revenue from existing customers is $650,000. During the year, those customers add $117,000 of expansion ARR, reduce subscriptions by $39,000, and cancel $52,000 of ARR. New customers contribute another $210,000 of ARR. All figures are measured on the same annualized basis. What is net revenue retention for the beginning customer cohort, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?
- 4.0%
- 86.0%
- 110.0%
- 136.3%
- 104.0%
Question 5
Medium (3/8)
A company sells one monthly service plan for $240 per customer. Variable cash delivery and support costs are $90 per customer per month. Fixed monthly operating cash costs are $54,000. The founder has already paid $45,000 for equipment, and monthly depreciation is $2,000. Ignore taxes, financing, further equipment purchases, and working-capital changes. How many active customers are needed for monthly operating cash break-even?
- 373
- 360
- 225
- 660
- 600
Question 6
Hard (7/8)
All amounts are in millions. A startup has unrestricted cash of 0.50 today. Its four quarterly net cash flows before financing are -0.35, -0.42, +0.18, -0.30, respectively. The company must maintain at least 0.25 at every quarter-end and today. A financing closes today with an issuance fee of 5% of gross proceeds deducted immediately. No other cash flows occur. What gross raise is required, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $0.86 million
- $0.67 million
- $0.64 million
- $0.11 million
- $0.61 million
Question 7
Medium (5/8)
All amounts are in millions. EBIT is 6.80, depreciation and amortization is 1.10, and capital expenditures are 1.90. Accounts receivable increases by 0.70, inventory by 0.35, and operating accounts payable by 0.45. Use a 25% tax rate on EBIT. There are no other operating working-capital changes or tax adjustments. Interest expense is 0.60 and new borrowing is 1.00. What is FCFF, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $4.70 million
- $3.25 million
- $3.70 million
- $2.60 million
- $4.90 million
Question 8
Medium (3/8)
A startup’s current annual revenue is $1.8 million. The operating plan targets $5.4 million in annual revenue exactly 4 years from now. Assume the same percentage growth rate each year and no acquisitions. Management also forecasts a 65% gross margin at the target scale. What annual compound revenue growth rate is required, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?
- 50.0%
- 31.6%
- 44.2%
- 18.2%
- 200.0%
Question 9
Medium (3/8)
Beginning annual recurring revenue from existing customers is $480,000. During the year, those customers add $96,000 of expansion ARR, reduce subscriptions by $24,000, and cancel $72,000 of ARR. New customers contribute another $180,000 of ARR. All figures are measured on the same annualized basis. What is net revenue retention for the beginning customer cohort, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?
- 100.0%
- 0.0%
- 105.0%
- 80.0%
- 137.5%
Question 10
Medium (5/8)
All amounts are in millions. EBIT is 8.40, depreciation and amortization is 1.30, and capital expenditures are 2.40. Accounts receivable increases by 0.90, inventory by 0.40, and operating accounts payable by 0.55. Use a 25% tax rate on EBIT. There are no other operating working-capital changes or tax adjustments. Interest expense is 0.60 and new borrowing is 1.00. What is FCFF, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $4.00 million
- $5.95 million
- $3.15 million
- $4.45 million
- $5.45 million
Question 11
Medium (3/8)
Opening deferred revenue is $75,000. Customers pay $460,000 in advance during the year, and the company recognizes $395,000 of revenue from those contracts and the opening deferred-revenue balance. It also refunds $18,000 for services never delivered; this refund reduces deferred revenue and does not reverse recognized revenue. There are no receivables or other adjustments. What is closing deferred revenue?
- −$8,000
- $158,000
- $47,000
- $140,000
- $122,000
Question 12
Medium (3/8)
A SaaS company starts with 1,800 customers. It loses 2.5% of the remaining starting cohort at each month-end for 9 months. It also adds 100 new customers each month, whose retention is tracked separately. No customer in the starting cohort returns after leaving. How many customers from the original cohort remain after month 9, rounded to the nearest customer?
- 367
- 1,433
- 2,333
- 1,395
- 1,470
Question 13
Medium (4/8)
A subscription firm spends $93,600 on sales and marketing and acquires 120 new customers. Each pays $125 per month. Gross margin is 65%; the firm also reports fixed corporate overhead of $18,000 per month. Assume all acquisition spending is attributable to these customers, monthly billings equal revenue, and there is no churn. What is gross-profit CAC payback, expressed in months and rounded to one decimal place?
- 1152.0 months
- 115.2 months
- 6.2 months
- 17.8 months
- 9.6 months
Question 14
Medium (3/8)
A SaaS company starts with 2,400 customers. It loses 3.5% of the remaining starting cohort at each month-end for 8 months. It also adds 100 new customers each month, whose retention is tracked separately. No customer in the starting cohort returns after leaving. How many customers from the original cohort remain after month 8, rounded to the nearest customer?
- 1,870
- 595
- 1,728
- 1,805
- 2,605
Question 15
Hard (7/8)
All amounts are in millions. A startup has unrestricted cash of 0.42 today. Its four quarterly net cash flows before financing are -0.28, -0.38, +0.14, -0.32, respectively. The company must maintain at least 0.20 at every quarter-end and today. A financing closes today with an issuance fee of 4% of gross proceeds deducted immediately. No other cash flows occur. What gross raise is required, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $0.65 million
- $0.79 million
- $0.06 million
- $0.62 million
- $0.60 million
Question 16
Medium (4/8)
All amounts are in millions. A startup reports net income of -1.40, depreciation of 0.45, and noncash stock compensation of 0.30. Accounts receivable increases by 0.55, accounts payable by 0.20, and deferred revenue by 1.65. These are the only noncash adjustments and operating working-capital changes. The company also pays 0.90 for equipment. What is operating cash flow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- −$1.00 million
- $0.35 million
- $1.75 million
- −$0.25 million
- $0.65 million
Question 17
Medium (3/8)
A startup recognizes $2,140,000 of credit revenue during the year. Accounts receivable rises from $420,000 to $565,000. Customers make no advance payments, and there are no write-offs, refunds, cash sales, or foreign-exchange effects. The company also raises $600,000 of equity during the year. How much cash was collected from customers?
- $2,140,000
- $2,595,000
- $2,285,000
- $1,995,000
- $1,575,000
Question 18
Hard (6/8)
A company hires 3 sales representatives on January 1. They spend January through March training and close no contracts during those months. Starting April 1, each representative signs 5 new customers on the first day of every month through December. Each customer pays $1,200 per month and service begins immediately. Recognize revenue monthly; assume no churn, discounts, bad debts, or prior customers. How much revenue is recognized in the calendar year?
- $1,404,000
- $810,000
- $648,000
- $162,000
- $1,944,000
Question 19
Medium (3/8)
A startup recognizes $1,650,000 of credit revenue during the year. Accounts receivable rises from $310,000 to $455,000. Customers make no advance payments, and there are no write-offs, refunds, cash sales, or foreign-exchange effects. The company also raises $600,000 of equity during the year. How much cash was collected from customers?
- $2,105,000
- $1,505,000
- $1,795,000
- $1,195,000
- $1,650,000
Question 20
Hard (6/8)
A company hires 4 sales representatives on January 1. They spend January through March training and close no contracts during those months. Starting April 1, each representative signs 4 new customers on the first day of every month through December. Each customer pays $1,500 per month and service begins immediately. Recognize revenue monthly; assume no churn, discounts, bad debts, or prior customers. How much revenue is recognized in the calendar year?
- $864,000
- $216,000
- $1,080,000
- $1,872,000
- $2,592,000
Exam A · Worked solutions
Question 1 · Gross-profit LTV relative to CAC
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Expected lifetime = 1 / 0.035 months. Gross-profit LTV = 210 × 0.7 / 0.035 = $4,200.00. Divide by CAC of 1,400: LTV/CAC = 3.00×. This simplified model does not estimate a discounted enterprise value.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses revenue LTV and omits gross margin.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the cost percentage rather than gross margin.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis annualizes churn while leaving revenue on a monthly basis.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the LTV/CAC ratio.
Question 2 · Gross-profit LTV relative to CAC
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Expected lifetime = 1 / 0.04 months. Gross-profit LTV = 160 × 0.75 / 0.04 = $3,000.00. Divide by CAC of 1,200: LTV/CAC = 2.50×. This simplified model does not estimate a discounted enterprise value.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis annualizes churn while leaving revenue on a monthly basis.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses revenue LTV and omits gross margin.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the LTV/CAC ratio.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the cost percentage rather than gross margin.
Question 3 · Deferred revenue after a customer refund
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: E
Closing deferred revenue = opening balance + advance cash collected − revenue earned − refunded unearned amounts = 92,000 + 580,000 − 510,000 − 22,000 = $140,000.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis adds the refund when the refund should reduce the liability.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the opening deferred-revenue balance.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the refund of an unearned customer payment.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the effects of cash collection and revenue recognition.
Question 4 · Net revenue retention with new customer growth
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: E
Ending ARR from the beginning cohort = 650,000 + 117,000 − 39,000 − 52,000 = 676,000. NRR = ending cohort ARR / beginning cohort ARR = 104.0%. New-customer ARR is excluded.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis reports net change as a percentage rather than ending cohort ARR divided by beginning cohort ARR.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is gross retention; it omits expansion within the starting cohort.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits subscription contractions.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis includes new-customer ARR, which is excluded from NRR.
Question 5 · Operating cash break-even volume
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: B
Monthly cash contribution per customer = 240 − 90 = 150. Break-even customers = 54000 / 150 = 360. The prior equipment purchase is sunk for this monthly calculation; depreciation is noncash.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis includes noncash depreciation in a cash break-even calculation.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores variable delivery and support costs.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis charges a historical equipment purchase against the current month’s operating cash break-even.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis divides fixed costs by variable cost instead of contribution per customer.
Question 6 · Gross raise required at the cash trough
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: B
Without financing, quarter-end balances are 0.15, -0.27, -0.09, -0.39 million. The lowest is -0.39. Net new cash needed = 0.25 − (-0.39) = 0.64. Since net proceeds equal gross proceeds × 0.95, gross raise = 0.64/0.95 = $0.67 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores positive quarterly cash inflows and overstates the cumulative funding need.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is the net cash need and ignores issuance fees.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis covers only the first quarter and ignores the later cash trough.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis deducts a fee from the cash need rather than increasing gross proceeds to cover the fee.
Question 7 · FCFF with a working-capital bridge
Medium (5/8)
Correct answer: C
Increase in operating NWC = 0.70 + 0.35 − 0.45 = 0.60. FCFF = EBIT × (1 − tax rate) + D&A − capex − ΔNWC = 6.80 × 0.75 + 1.10 − 1.90 − 0.60 = $3.70 million. Borrowing and interest are financing items.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis includes new debt issuance in FCFF.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis deducts after-tax interest even though FCFF is a pre-financing cash flow.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the depreciation add-back after using EBIT.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis adds the working-capital investment rather than subtracting it.
Question 8 · Growth required to reach the revenue target
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: B
There are 4 annual growth intervals. Solve 1.8 × (1 + g)^4 = 5.4: g = (5.4/1.8)^(1/4) − 1 = 31.6%. Gross margin does not enter this revenue-growth calculation.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis divides total growth by years rather than compounding.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses one fewer compounding period than specified.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis mixes the target gross profit with current revenue.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is the total growth over the entire horizon.
Question 9 · Net revenue retention with new customer growth
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: A
Ending ARR from the beginning cohort = 480,000 + 96,000 − 24,000 − 72,000 = 480,000. NRR = ending cohort ARR / beginning cohort ARR = 100.0%. New-customer ARR is excluded.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis reports net change as a percentage rather than ending cohort ARR divided by beginning cohort ARR.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits subscription contractions.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is gross retention; it omits expansion within the starting cohort.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis includes new-customer ARR, which is excluded from NRR.
Question 10 · FCFF with a working-capital bridge
Medium (5/8)
Correct answer: D
Increase in operating NWC = 0.90 + 0.40 − 0.55 = 0.75. FCFF = EBIT × (1 − tax rate) + D&A − capex − ΔNWC = 8.40 × 0.75 + 1.30 − 2.40 − 0.75 = $4.45 million. Borrowing and interest are financing items.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis deducts after-tax interest even though FCFF is a pre-financing cash flow.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis adds the working-capital investment rather than subtracting it.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the depreciation add-back after using EBIT.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis includes new debt issuance in FCFF.
Question 11 · Deferred revenue after a customer refund
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: E
Closing deferred revenue = opening balance + advance cash collected − revenue earned − refunded unearned amounts = 75,000 + 460,000 − 395,000 − 18,000 = $122,000.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the effects of cash collection and revenue recognition.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis adds the refund when the refund should reduce the liability.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the opening deferred-revenue balance.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the refund of an unearned customer payment.
Question 12 · Retention of the starting customer cohort
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: B
Remaining original customers = 1,800 × (1 − 0.025)^9 = 1433.2239, or 1,433. New signups do not belong in the original-cohort measure.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is the number lost from the starting cohort, not the number remaining.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis includes new customers even though the question asks only about the starting cohort.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis applies churn repeatedly to the original balance rather than the shrinking cohort.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the final month’s churn.
Question 13 · Gross-profit CAC payback
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
CAC = $93,600 / 120 = $780. Monthly gross profit per customer = $125 × 65% = $81.25. Payback = CAC / monthly gross profit = 9.6 months. Corporate overhead is outside this stated gross-profit measure.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis fails to divide acquisition spending by the number of customers acquired.
B. Why this choice falls shortThe revenue input is already monthly. Multiplying the answer by 12 confuses months and years.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses revenue rather than gross profit as the monthly recovery of acquisition cost.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis treats the cost-of-revenue percentage as gross margin.
Question 14 · Retention of the starting customer cohort
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: D
Remaining original customers = 2,400 × (1 − 0.035)^8 = 1804.8028, or 1,805. New signups do not belong in the original-cohort measure.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the final month’s churn.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is the number lost from the starting cohort, not the number remaining.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis applies churn repeatedly to the original balance rather than the shrinking cohort.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis includes new customers even though the question asks only about the starting cohort.
Question 15 · Gross raise required at the cash trough
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: A
Without financing, quarter-end balances are 0.14, -0.24, -0.10, -0.42 million. The lowest is -0.42. Net new cash needed = 0.20 − (-0.42) = 0.62. Since net proceeds equal gross proceeds × 0.96, gross raise = 0.62/0.96 = $0.65 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores positive quarterly cash inflows and overstates the cumulative funding need.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis covers only the first quarter and ignores the later cash trough.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the net cash need and ignores issuance fees.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis deducts a fee from the cash need rather than increasing gross proceeds to cover the fee.
Question 16 · Operating cash flow from the indirect method
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
OCF = -1.40 + 0.45 + 0.30 − 0.55 + 0.20 + 1.65 = $0.65 million. Equipment spending is reported separately in investing cash flow. Positive OCF here partly reflects advance customer collections.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis omits cash collected before revenue recognition, reflected in the deferred-revenue increase.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis fails to add back noncash stock compensation included in net income.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis adds an increase in receivables instead of subtracting it.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis deducts equipment purchases from operating cash flow; they are investing cash flows.
Question 17 · Revenue to cash collections
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: D
Collections = beginning A/R + credit revenue − ending A/R = 420,000 + 2,140,000 − 565,000 = $1,995,000. The equity issue is a financing cash flow.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis equates recognized revenue with collections and ignores the receivables increase.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis incorrectly includes financing cash in customer collections.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis adds the increase in receivables; the increase represents revenue not yet collected.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis omits collections of beginning accounts receivable.
Question 18 · Sales ramp and recognized subscription revenue
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: B
Each monthly cohort adds 15 customers and $18,000 of MRR. April customers contribute 9 months, May 8, and so on through December’s 1 month. Total = 18,000 × (9 + 8 + … + 1) = $810,000.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes representatives generate customers during the three-month training period.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits one month of revenue for every acquisition cohort.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis counts each new customer for only one month.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis treats every contract signed during April–December as producing a full 12 months of revenue.
Question 19 · Revenue to cash collections
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: B
Collections = beginning A/R + credit revenue − ending A/R = 310,000 + 1,650,000 − 455,000 = $1,505,000. The equity issue is a financing cash flow.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis incorrectly includes financing cash in customer collections.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis adds the increase in receivables; the increase represents revenue not yet collected.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis omits collections of beginning accounts receivable.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis equates recognized revenue with collections and ignores the receivables increase.
Question 20 · Sales ramp and recognized subscription revenue
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
Each monthly cohort adds 16 customers and $24,000 of MRR. April customers contribute 9 months, May 8, and so on through December’s 1 month. Total = 24,000 × (9 + 8 + … + 1) = $1,080,000.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis omits one month of revenue for every acquisition cohort.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis counts each new customer for only one month.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes representatives generate customers during the three-month training period.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis treats every contract signed during April–December as producing a full 12 months of revenue.
Practice Exam B · Valuation & time value of money
Payment timing, NPV, terminal-value DCFs, PEG, comparables, and VC pricing.
20 questions · Suggested pace: 90 minutes.
Skip to this exam’s solutions
Question 1
Medium (4/8)
A company reports EBITDA of $4.20 million. This includes a one-time legal expense of $0.60 million and a nonrecurring gain of $0.35 million. Treat both as nonrecurring for this exercise. Apply a 7.5× EV/EBITDA multiple to normalized EBITDA. Excess cash is $1.2 million and debt is $4.0 million, with no other claims. What is indicated equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $30.58 million
- $28.70 million
- $33.38 million
- $35.82 million
- $21.57 million
Question 2
Hard (6/8)
The present value today of a company’s Year 1–4 FCFF is $6.4 million. At the end of Year 4, the business is assumed to sell for 8 times Year 4 EBITDA of $5.5 million. This multiple yields enterprise value. Use a 14% WACC. Current excess cash is $1.6 million and current debt is $6.2 million. Explicit FCFF excludes sale proceeds. What is current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $27.85 million
- $31.50 million
- $32.45 million
- $45.80 million
- $21.45 million
Question 3
Hard (7/8)
A service company can collect $190,000 at each year-end for 4 years, or collect the entire undiscounted contract price today less a 16% prepayment discount. Prepayment alone creates a $12,500 administration cost today. Service delivery costs $42,000 at each year-end under either option. Use 19% as the appropriate annual opportunity cost of capital. Service obligations are identical, all cash is collected as scheduled, and there are no taxes or other cash flows. What is incremental NPV of prepayment over annual billing, rounded to the nearest dollar?
- −$134,100
- $13,748
- $137,069
- −$124,569
- $124,569
Question 4
Medium (4/8)
Comparable-company analysis supports 4.5× next-twelve-month revenue for the subject’s risk and growth profile. The subject has trailing-twelve-month revenue of $6.1 million and next-twelve-month revenue of $7.8 million. The multiple yields enterprise value. Excess cash is $2.1 million and debt is $5.8 million. No other claims exist. What is indicated current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $38.80 million
- $43.00 million
- $35.10 million
- $23.75 million
- $31.40 million
Question 5
Hard (6/8)
A DCF forecasts cash flows through Year 3. The present value today of all Year 1–3 FCFF is $4.6 million. FCFF in Year 4, the first year after the explicit forecast, is expected to be $2.8 million and then grow at 3.0% annually forever. WACC is 13.0%. Excess cash today is $1.1 million and debt today is $3.5 million, with no other claims. What is equity value today, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $24.01 million
- $19.37 million
- $30.20 million
- $21.61 million
- $22.19 million
Question 6
Hard (7/8)
A VC invests $5 million today. At the end of Year 5, projected exit enterprise value is $110 million, exit debt is $14 million, and exit excess cash is $4 million. The investor targets a 30% annual return and expects a future financing to reduce its percentage ownership by 25% relative to its post-investment stake today. Assume no interim distributions, preferences, or other dilution. What current pre-money equity value is consistent with these assumptions, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $21.93 million
- $20.20 million
- $17.22 million
- $15.20 million
- $25.00 million
Question 7
Medium (3/8)
An investor pays $2.1 million today and receives a single $6.3 million distribution exactly 6 years later. There are no interim distributions, fees, taxes, or follow-on investments. The company reports a 40% revenue growth rate over the first year. What is the investor’s annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?
- 24.6%
- 33.3%
- 20.1%
- 200.0%
- 40.0%
Question 8
Medium (4/8)
A company trades at $96.00 per share. Current annual EPS is $4.00; forecast annual EPS three years from now is $6.912. Revenue is expected to grow 30% per year, and the peer median P/E is 19×. For this question, use the company’s current EPS in P/E and annual compound growth from current EPS to the Year 3 EPS forecast in PEG. Enter growth as percentage points, such as 20 for 20%. What is PEG, rounded to two decimals?
- 0.99
- 0.69
- 0.95
- 0.80
- 1.20
Question 9
Medium (4/8)
A startup signs a 4-year equipment lease requiring $72,000 at the beginning of each year. The first payment is due today and the final payment is due at time 3. Use a 10% effective annual discount rate. Ignore tax effects, residual values, deposits, and all other costs. What is the present value of the lease payments, rounded to the nearest dollar?
- $228,230
- $171,473
- $276,159
- $251,053
- $288,000
Question 10
Hard (6/8)
A project costs $350,000 today. Its year-end operating free cash flows are $120,000, $150,000, and $190,000 in Years 1–3. At the end of Year 3, it also generates $45,000 from an asset sale, stated after all taxes and selling costs. Use a 14% annual discount rate. The operating cash flows exclude the sale proceeds; there are no other flows. What is NPV today, rounded to the nearest dollar?
- $43,928
- −$1,072
- $29,302
- $379,302
- $155,000
Question 11
Hard (6/8)
Two mutually exclusive projects have the same three-year life and risk. Project A costs $0.75 million today and pays $0.32 million at each of the next three year-ends. Project B costs $1.15 million today and pays $0.49 million at each year-end. Capital is available for either project, and there are no later cash flows. Use a 12% opportunity cost of capital. What is NPV(B) minus NPV(A), expressed in millions and rounded to three decimal places?
- −$0.008 million
- $0.110 million
- $0.408 million
- $0.027 million
- $0.008 million
Question 12
Medium (4/8)
Comparable-company analysis supports 5.0× next-twelve-month revenue for the subject’s risk and growth profile. The subject has trailing-twelve-month revenue of $7.4 million and next-twelve-month revenue of $9.6 million. The multiple yields enterprise value. Excess cash is $2.7 million and debt is $6.9 million. No other claims exist. What is indicated current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $52.20 million
- $32.80 million
- $48.00 million
- $57.60 million
- $43.80 million
Question 13
Hard (7/8)
A VC invests $7 million today. At the end of Year 4, projected exit enterprise value is $140 million, exit debt is $18 million, and exit excess cash is $6 million. The investor targets a 28% annual return and expects a future financing to reduce its percentage ownership by 20% relative to its post-investment stake today. Assume no interim distributions, preferences, or other dilution. What current pre-money equity value is consistent with these assumptions, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $34.72 million
- $40.68 million
- $41.30 million
- $31.15 million
- $38.15 million
Question 14
Medium (4/8)
A company trades at $132.00 per share. Current annual EPS is $6.00; forecast annual EPS three years from now is $9.585. Revenue is expected to grow 28% per year, and the peer median P/E is 19×. For this question, use the company’s current EPS in P/E and annual compound growth from current EPS to the Year 3 EPS forecast in PEG. Enter growth as percentage points, such as 20 for 20%. What is PEG, rounded to two decimals?
- 1.10
- 0.79
- 0.81
- 1.12
- 1.30
Question 15
Medium (4/8)
A startup needs $240,000 exactly 24 months from today to meet a planned equipment payment. It currently has no money set aside for this obligation. It will make equal deposits at each month-end into an account earning a nominal annual rate of 6.0%, compounded monthly. The last deposit is made on the payment date. What monthly deposit is required, rounded to the nearest dollar?
- $10,637
- $10,000
- $4,723
- $9,437
- $9,390
Question 16
Hard (7/8)
A firm trades at $84.00 per share. Current net income available to common shareholders is $160 million and current diluted shares are 50 million. Three years from now, forecast common net income is $280 million and diluted shares are 56 million. Use current diluted EPS for P/E and three-year compound diluted-EPS growth for PEG; enter growth in percentage points. What is PEG, rounded to two decimals?
- 0.47
- 1.64
- 163.66
- 1.05
- 1.28
Question 17
Hard (6/8)
The present value today of a company’s Year 1–4 FCFF is $7.2 million. At the end of Year 4, the business is assumed to sell for 9 times Year 4 EBITDA of $6.2 million. This multiple yields enterprise value. Use a 16% WACC. Current excess cash is $1.9 million and current debt is $7.1 million. Explicit FCFF excludes sale proceeds. What is current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $25.62 million
- $57.80 million
- $37.75 million
- $38.02 million
- $32.82 million
Question 18
Medium (3/8)
An investor pays $1.6 million today and receives a single $4.4 million distribution exactly 5 years later. There are no interim distributions, fees, taxes, or follow-on investments. The company reports a 40% revenue growth rate over the first year. What is the investor’s annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?
- 40.0%
- 28.8%
- 22.4%
- 35.0%
- 175.0%
Question 19
Hard (7/8)
A service company can collect $165,000 at each year-end for 3 years, or collect the entire undiscounted contract price today less a 17% prepayment discount. Prepayment alone creates a $9,600 administration cost today. Service delivery costs $34,000 at each year-end under either option. Use 21% as the appropriate annual opportunity cost of capital. Service obligations are identical, all cash is collected as scheduled, and there are no taxes or other cash flows. What is incremental NPV of prepayment over annual billing, rounded to the nearest dollar?
- −$93,750
- $59,051
- −$59,051
- −$11,463
- $68,651
Question 20
Hard (7/8)
Year-end FCFF in Years 1–3 is $-1.6, $0.8, and $3.1 million, respectively. Beginning in Year 4, FCFF grows at 3% annually forever from the Year 3 level. Use a constant 15% WACC. Current cash is $2.3 million, of which $0.7 million is restricted and must remain in operations; only the rest is excess. Current debt is $4.1 million. There are no other claims. What is current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $20.35 million
- $17.64 million
- $16.25 million
- $25.36 million
- $16.95 million
Exam B · Worked solutions
Question 1 · Normalized EBITDA and comparable value
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: A
Normalized EBITDA = 4.20+0.60−0.35 = 4.45. EV = 4.45×7.5. Equity = EV + 1.2−4.0 = $30.58 million. Normalization removes both unusual costs and unusual gains.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the multiple before normalizing the one-time items.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis gives enterprise value before the cash-and-debt bridge.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis adds a nonrecurring gain instead of removing it.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts the one-time expense again instead of adding it back.
Question 2 · Exit-multiple DCF
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: A
Exit EV₄ = 8×5.5 = 44.00. Current EV = 6.4+44.00/(1+0.14)⁴. Equity = EV + 1.6−6.2 = $27.85 million. The Year 4 operating cash flow and sale value are distinct cash-flow components.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis discounts the exit for only three years.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis reports enterprise value rather than equity value.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis treats an end-of-Year-4 exit value as cash today.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis includes the exit but omits the explicit forecast cash flows.
Question 3 · Incremental NPV of an advance payment
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: E
Prepayment net cash today = 190,000 × 4 × 0.84 − 12,500 = $625,900. PV of annual receipts = 190,000 × [1 − (1 + 0.19)^(−4)] / 0.19 = $501,331.25. Incremental NPV = $625,900 − $501,331.25 = $124,569. Equal delivery-cost streams cancel.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis compares undiscounted receipts instead of present values.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts delivery costs from only one option even though those costs are identical.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the incremental upfront administration cost.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the requested comparison: prepayment minus annual billing.
Question 4 · Consistent revenue basis in comparable valuation
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Use the revenue period corresponding to the comparable multiple: EV = 4.5×7.8 = 35.10. Equity = EV+excess cash−debt = 35.10+2.1−5.8 = $31.40 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the excess-cash and debt adjustments.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis adds debt even though debt holders have a prior claim.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is enterprise value before the bridge to equity.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis applies a forward revenue multiple to trailing revenue.
Question 5 · Terminal value and the equity bridge
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: D
Terminal value at end of Year 3 = Year 4 FCFF/(WACC−g) = 2.8/(0.13−0.03) = 28.0000. Discount it three years: 28.0000/(1+0.13)³. Equity = 4.6 + discounted terminal value + 1.1 − 3.5 = $21.61 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is enterprise value; it omits the cash-and-debt bridge.
B. Why this choice falls shortThe terminal value is at the end of Year 3, not Year 4.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis fails to discount terminal value from the end of Year 3 to today.
E. Why this choice falls shortThe cash flow is already Year 4 FCFF; growing it again advances it an extra year.
Question 6 · VC pricing after future dilution
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: D
Exit equity = 110+4−14 = 100. Required exit ownership = 5×(1+0.3)^5/100. Divide by 0.75 to obtain today’s post-investment stake, 24.7529%. Post-money = 5/stake; pre-money = post-money−5 = $15.20 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the investor’s future ownership dilution.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is post-money value; the question asks for pre-money value.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis treats exit enterprise value as exit equity value.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis treats the annual target return as simple interest instead of compounding it over the holding period.
Question 7 · Annualized return from one exit
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: C
Solve −2.1 + 6.3/(1+IRR)^6 = 0. IRR = (6.3/2.1)^(1/6) − 1 = 20.1%. The timing and amount of investor cash flows determine IRR.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses one fewer year than the actual holding period.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis averages the total return arithmetically instead of compounding.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the cumulative holding-period return, not annual IRR.
E. Why this choice falls shortCompany revenue growth is not the investor’s cash-flow IRR.
Question 8 · PEG from compound EPS growth
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Current P/E = 96/4 = 24.00×. EPS CAGR = (6.912/4)^(1/3)−1 = 20.0000%. PEG = 24.00/(0.200000×100) = 1.20. A PEG comparison still requires comparable growth horizons and risk.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses an arithmetic average instead of compound annual EPS growth.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses Year 3 EPS to calculate P/E despite the stated current-EPS convention.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis substitutes the peer median P/E for the subject company’s P/E.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses revenue growth instead of EPS growth.
Question 9 · Present value of beginning-of-year payments
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: D
This is an annuity due. PV = 72,000 × [1 − (1 + 0.1)^(−4)] / 0.1 × (1 + 0.1) = $251,053. On a financial calculator, use beginning-of-period mode or multiply an ordinary-annuity PV by 1 + r.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis treats the payments as occurring at year-end instead of year-beginning.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis discounts an already calculated present value a second time.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis moves the payments two periods earlier rather than one.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis adds nominal payments without discounting.
Question 10 · Project NPV with a terminal asset sale
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
NPV = −350,000 + 120,000/(1+0.14) + 150,000/(1+0.14)² + (190,000+45,000)/(1+0.14)³ = $29,302. The sale is added once, at the same date as the Year 3 operating cash flow.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis treats the Year 3 asset sale as cash received today.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the separate terminal asset sale.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reports PV of future inflows without deducting the initial investment.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis sums undiscounted cash flows.
Question 11 · Incremental value of the larger project
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: E
Incremental investment = 0.40; incremental annual cash flow = 0.17. NPV(B−A) = −0.40 + 0.17 × [1−(1+0.12)^(−3)]/0.12 = $0.008 million. Comparing incremental NPV resolves the scale difference.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses B minus A.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis compares undiscounted cash totals.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis values incremental inflows but omits the larger initial investment.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reports Project B’s standalone NPV rather than its incremental NPV over A.
Question 12 · Consistent revenue basis in comparable valuation
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Use the revenue period corresponding to the comparable multiple: EV = 5.0×9.6 = 48.00. Equity = EV+excess cash−debt = 48.00+2.7−6.9 = $43.80 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the excess-cash and debt adjustments.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis applies a forward revenue multiple to trailing revenue.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is enterprise value before the bridge to equity.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis adds debt even though debt holders have a prior claim.
Question 13 · VC pricing after future dilution
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: D
Exit equity = 140+6−18 = 128. Required exit ownership = 7×(1+0.28)^4/128. Divide by 0.80 to obtain today’s post-investment stake, 18.3501%. Post-money = 7/stake; pre-money = post-money−7 = $31.15 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis treats exit enterprise value as exit equity value.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the investor’s future ownership dilution.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis treats the annual target return as simple interest instead of compounding it over the holding period.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is post-money value; the question asks for pre-money value.
Question 14 · PEG from compound EPS growth
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Current P/E = 132/6 = 22.00×. EPS CAGR = (9.585/6)^(1/3)−1 = 16.8998%. PEG = 22.00/(0.168998×100) = 1.30. A PEG comparison still requires comparable growth horizons and risk.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses an arithmetic average instead of compound annual EPS growth.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses revenue growth instead of EPS growth.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses Year 3 EPS to calculate P/E despite the stated current-EPS convention.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis substitutes the peer median P/E for the subject company’s P/E.
Question 15 · Monthly reserve deposits for a future obligation
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: D
Monthly interest rate = 0.060/12 = 0.0050. FV = deposit × [((1+r)^24 − 1)/r]. Therefore deposit = 240,000 × 0.0050/[(1+0.0050)^24−1] = $9,437. Use END mode.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses a present-value annuity factor for a future accumulation target.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores interest earned on earlier deposits.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the annual rate as the monthly rate.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes beginning-of-month deposits rather than the stated month-end deposits.
Question 16 · PEG after forecast share dilution
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: B
Current EPS = 160/50 = 3.2000. Year 3 EPS = 280/56 = 5.0000. EPS CAGR = (5.0000/3.2000)^(1/3)−1 = 16.0397%. Current P/E = 26.2500. PEG = P/E divided by CAGR in percentage points = 1.64.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses three-year total EPS growth rather than annual compound growth.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis inputs growth as a decimal rather than percentage points, inflating PEG by 100×.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses forecast EPS in P/E instead of the required current EPS.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis uses growth in total net income and ignores forecast share dilution.
Question 17 · Exit-multiple DCF
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: E
Exit EV₄ = 9×6.2 = 55.80. Current EV = 7.2+55.80/(1+0.16)⁴. Equity = EV + 1.9−7.1 = $32.82 million. The Year 4 operating cash flow and sale value are distinct cash-flow components.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis includes the exit but omits the explicit forecast cash flows.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis treats an end-of-Year-4 exit value as cash today.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis discounts the exit for only three years.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reports enterprise value rather than equity value.
Question 18 · Annualized return from one exit
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: C
Solve −1.6 + 4.4/(1+IRR)^5 = 0. IRR = (4.4/1.6)^(1/5) − 1 = 22.4%. The timing and amount of investor cash flows determine IRR.
A. Why this choice falls shortCompany revenue growth is not the investor’s cash-flow IRR.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses one fewer year than the actual holding period.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis averages the total return arithmetically instead of compounding.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is the cumulative holding-period return, not annual IRR.
Question 19 · Incremental NPV of an advance payment
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: B
Prepayment net cash today = 165,000 × 3 × 0.83 − 9,600 = $401,250. PV of annual receipts = 165,000 × [1 − (1 + 0.21)^(−3)] / 0.21 = $342,199.05. Incremental NPV = $401,250 − $342,199.05 = $59,051. Equal delivery-cost streams cancel.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis compares undiscounted receipts instead of present values.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the requested comparison: prepayment minus annual billing.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts delivery costs from only one option even though those costs are identical.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the incremental upfront administration cost.
Question 20 · Full DCF with restricted cash
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: C
Year 4 FCFF = 3.1×1.03 = 3.193. TV₃ = 3.193/(0.15−.03) = 26.6083. PV(explicit FCFF) = 1.2519. Equity = 1.2519+26.6083/(1+0.15)³+(2.3−0.7)−4.1 = $16.25 million. Negative forecast cash flows remain in the valuation.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis omits debt from the enterprise-to-equity bridge.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis drops the negative Year 1 FCFF.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis adds terminal value without discounting it to today.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis adds restricted operating cash as though it were excess distributable cash.
Practice Exam C · Cap tables & deal terms
Priced rounds, SAFEs, notes, pool top-ups, liquidation preferences, and anti-dilution.
20 questions · Suggested pace: 90 minutes.
Skip to this exam’s solutions
Question 1
Medium (4/8)
Preferred stock’s existing conversion price is $4.00. For the contractual broad-based weighted-average adjustment, A is the 10.0 million common-equivalent shares outstanding before the new issue, B is the number of shares the new consideration would buy at the old conversion price, and C is the number actually issued. A down round raises $6.0 million at $2.00 per share. Apply the standard adjustment CPnew = CPold × (A+B)/(A+C). What is the adjusted conversion price, rounded to two decimals?
- $3.17
- $3.54
- $3.08
- $4.52
- $2.00
Question 2
Hard (7/8)
Current fully diluted shares total 8.0 million, including 5.5 million founder shares and 0.5 million unallocated option-pool shares. A new investor invests $6 million at a $18 million pre-money valuation. Before pricing, the unallocated pool is increased so that it equals 15% of post-financing fully diluted shares. All top-up shares are included in the pre-money denominator used to set the new share price. No other changes occur. What is founders’ final fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 44.00%
- 51.56%
- 58.67%
- 47.41%
- 41.25%
Question 3
Medium (4/8)
Founders own all equity before two post-money SAFEs: $1.00 million at a $8.0 million post-money cap and $0.90 million at a $12.0 million post-money cap. For this simplified cap-binding model, each SAFE buys its investment divided by its own cap immediately before the priced round; the SAFEs do not dilute one another. The priced round then sells 25% of post-round equity to new investors. There is no option pool or other dilution. What is final founder ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 60.00%
- 75.00%
- 60.70%
- 55.00%
- 80.00%
Question 4
Medium (4/8)
An existing investor owns 20% of a startup’s fully diluted shares before a round. Outside investors commit $4.8 million at a fixed $16 million pre-money valuation. The existing investor can invest an additional amount at the same price to maintain its 20% ownership after the entire round. Its check increases total round proceeds rather than replacing outside money. No other capitalization changes occur. What must it invest, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $1.20 million
- $0.96 million
- $4.16 million
- $3.84 million
- $6.00 million
Question 5
Hard (6/8)
An investor paid $4 million for 25% as-converted ownership. It has a 1× participating preference capped at 2× its original investment in total distributions while remaining preferred. It may instead convert to common and take its uncapped as-converted percentage. Exit proceeds available to shareholders are $40 million; there are no other preferred claims. What is the investor’s optimal payout, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $8.00 million
- $10.00 million
- $14.00 million
- $30.00 million
- $13.00 million
Question 6
Medium (4/8)
An investor paid $4 million for 25% ownership on an as-converted basis. Its preferred shares carry a 1.5× nonparticipating liquidation preference. At exit, $28 million is available to distribute after all debt and transaction costs. The investor may either take its preference or convert to common, but cannot do both. There are no other preferred claims. How much does the investor receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $7.00 million
- $11.50 million
- $21.00 million
- $13.00 million
- $6.00 million
Question 7
Hard (6/8)
A note has principal of $1.1 million and simple annual interest of 6% for 2 years. Both principal and accrued interest convert. New investors pay $4.00 per share. The note converts at the lower of a 25% discount to that price or a $13 million valuation cap divided by 5 million pre-conversion fully diluted shares. The cap denominator excludes the note itself and new-round shares. How many shares does the note receive, rounded to the nearest share?
- 423,077 shares
- 473,846 shares
- 410,667 shares
- 308,000 shares
- 631,795 shares
Question 8
Medium (4/8)
A preferred investor paid $4 million and owns 25% on an as-converted basis. The shares have a 1× participating liquidation preference with no participation cap. The exit produces $30 million for shareholders after debt and costs. The investor receives its preference first and then participates in the remaining proceeds at its as-converted percentage. No other preferred claims exist. What is the investor’s distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $7.50 million
- $19.50 million
- $4.00 million
- $11.50 million
- $10.50 million
Question 9
Medium (4/8)
Founders own all equity before two post-money SAFEs: $0.75 million at a $7.5 million post-money cap and $0.60 million at a $10.0 million post-money cap. For this simplified cap-binding model, each SAFE buys its investment divided by its own cap immediately before the priced round; the SAFEs do not dilute one another. The priced round then sells 20% of post-round equity to new investors. There is no option pool or other dilution. What is final founder ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 84.00%
- 64.00%
- 67.20%
- 67.68%
- 80.00%
Question 10
Easy (2/8)
An exit provides $7.5 million after debt and transaction costs. Series B has a senior liquidation claim of $5.0 million. Series A has a junior liquidation claim of $4.0 million. Both are nonparticipating, and neither converts. The documents pay Series B in full before Series A; common is paid last. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $2.50 million
- $4.00 million
- $0.00 million
- $5.00 million
- $3.33 million
Question 11
Medium (4/8)
Before financing, a company has 6.0 million founder shares, 1.0 million issued employee shares, and 1.0 million unissued shares reserved for options. The round uses a $16 million pre-money valuation and includes the entire existing option reserve in the fully diluted pre-money share count. An investor puts in $4 million. There is no pool top-up or other security. What is founders’ post-round fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 80.00%
- 60.00%
- 75.00%
- 66.67%
- 50.00%
Question 12
Hard (7/8)
Current fully diluted shares total 10.0 million, including 7.0 million founder shares and 0.8 million unallocated option-pool shares. A new investor invests $8 million at a $24 million pre-money valuation. Before pricing, the unallocated pool is increased so that it equals 16% of post-financing fully diluted shares. All top-up shares are included in the pre-money denominator used to set the new share price. No other changes occur. What is founders’ final fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 59.86%
- 52.50%
- 44.89%
- 48.61%
- 41.30%
Question 13
Hard (6/8)
An investor paid $5 million for 30% as-converted ownership. It has a 1× participating preference capped at 2× its original investment in total distributions while remaining preferred. It may instead convert to common and take its uncapped as-converted percentage. Exit proceeds available to shareholders are $45 million; there are no other preferred claims. What is the investor’s optimal payout, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $17.00 million
- $18.50 million
- $13.50 million
- $10.00 million
- $31.50 million
Question 14
Easy (2/8)
Series A and Series B have equal-ranking nonparticipating liquidation-preference claims of $7.5 million and $5.0 million. Exit cash available to shareholders is only $8.0 million. The documents allocate a preference shortfall pro rata to the dollar size of the claims, and neither series converts. Common shareholders receive nothing until both claims are paid. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $4.80 million
- $7.50 million
- $3.20 million
- $3.00 million
- $4.00 million
Question 15
Easy (2/8)
Series A and Series B have equal-ranking nonparticipating liquidation-preference claims of $6.0 million and $4.0 million. Exit cash available to shareholders is only $7.0 million. The documents allocate a preference shortfall pro rata to the dollar size of the claims, and neither series converts. Common shareholders receive nothing until both claims are paid. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $6.00 million
- $3.50 million
- $2.80 million
- $4.20 million
- $3.00 million
Question 16
Hard (6/8)
A note has principal of $0.8 million and simple annual interest of 8% for 1.5 years. Both principal and accrued interest convert. New investors pay $3.00 per share. The note converts at the lower of a 20% discount to that price or a $10 million valuation cap divided by 5 million pre-conversion fully diluted shares. The cap denominator excludes the note itself and new-round shares. How many shares does the note receive, rounded to the nearest share?
- 400,000 shares
- 298,667 shares
- 373,333 shares
- 560,000 shares
- 448,000 shares
Question 17
Medium (4/8)
A preferred investor paid $3 million and owns 20% on an as-converted basis. The shares have a 1× participating liquidation preference with no participation cap. The exit produces $24 million for shareholders after debt and costs. The investor receives its preference first and then participates in the remaining proceeds at its as-converted percentage. No other preferred claims exist. What is the investor’s distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $3.00 million
- $7.20 million
- $16.80 million
- $7.80 million
- $4.80 million
Question 18
Medium (4/8)
Before financing, a company has 7.0 million founder shares, 1.5 million issued employee shares, and 1.5 million unissued shares reserved for options. The round uses a $20 million pre-money valuation and includes the entire existing option reserve in the fully diluted pre-money share count. An investor puts in $5 million. There is no pool top-up or other security. What is founders’ post-round fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 45.00%
- 63.64%
- 70.00%
- 56.00%
- 80.00%
Question 19
Easy (2/8)
Founders initially own 72% of fully diluted equity. A Series A investor receives 20% of the company immediately after its financing. Later, Series B investors receive 25% of the company immediately after their financing. Founders do not invest further or sell existing shares. There are no option-pool changes, convertibles, or other capitalization changes. What percentage do founders own after Series B, rounded to two decimals?
- 54.00%
- 43.20%
- 57.60%
- 39.60%
- 27.00%
Question 20
Hard (6/8)
Founders hold 6.0 million common shares. An earlier investor holds 2.0 million preferred shares, originally convertible one-for-one at a $4.00 conversion price. A down round raises $4.0 million at $2.00 per share. Full-ratchet protection resets the earlier conversion price to the down-round price; its new conversion ratio equals old conversion price divided by new conversion price. No pool or other securities exist. What is founders’ fully diluted ownership after the round, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 42.86%
- 66.67%
- 50.00%
- 33.33%
- 60.00%
Exam C · Worked solutions
Question 1 · Broad-based weighted-average anti-dilution
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: B
B = 6/4 = 1.50 million; C = 6/2 = 3.00 million. New conversion price = 4×(10+1.50)/(10+3.00) = $3.54. A broad-based weighted-average adjustment is less severe than a full ratchet in this example.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis double-counts B in the denominator.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits B, the old-price equivalent of new consideration.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the numerator and denominator.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis applies full-ratchet protection instead of weighted-average protection.
Question 2 · Pre-money option-pool top-up and founder dilution
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: A
Let x be new pool shares in millions. Post-financing shares = (8+x)×(1+6/18). Solve 0.5+x = 0.15×(8+x)×1.333333, giving x=1.375000. Founder ownership = 5.5/[(8+1.375000)×1.333333] = 44.00%.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the pre-money option-pool top-up.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis includes the top-up but omits new investor shares.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis sizes the reserve as a percentage of old pre-money shares instead of final post-financing shares.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts the entire target pool again even though an existing pool is already included.
Question 3 · Post-money SAFEs followed by new equity
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: A
SAFE ownership before the priced round is 12.5000%+7.5000%. Founder ownership before the round is 80.0000%. Multiply by 75% retained after the round: 60.00%. The capitalization convention is stipulated to avoid document-specific SAFE ambiguities.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the SAFE ownership sold before the round.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis sequentially dilutes the SAFEs, contrary to the stated post-money convention.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts priced-round dilution as percentage points instead of multiplying the remaining founder stake.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is founder ownership before the priced-round dilution.
Question 4 · Pro-rata investment when the outside check is fixed
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: A
Let x be the insider check. Maintaining its stake requires x = 0.2×(4.8+x). Thus x = 0.2×4.8/(1−0.2) = $1.20 million. The insider funds its percentage of the entire enlarged round.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes the outside commitment is the total round rather than adding the insider’s check.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the ownership percentage to company value rather than solving for the incremental investment.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the other holders’ ownership percentage.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is total round proceeds, not the existing investor’s check.
Question 5 · Participation cap versus voluntary conversion
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: B
Uncapped participation would pay 4+0.25×(40−4) = 13.00, but preferred proceeds are capped at 8.00. Conversion pays 0.25×40 = 10.00. Choose $10.00 million. The preferred cap does not cap the separate common-conversion alternative.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the preferred cap but ignores the higher available conversion payout.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis gives the investor both its preference and a full common share of total exit proceeds.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the payout to the remaining shareholders.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the participation cap while retaining preferred status.
Question 6 · Nonparticipating preferred at exit
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: A
Preference payout = 4×1.5 = 6.00. Conversion payout = 0.25×28 = 7.00. Nonparticipating preferred elects the larger: $7.00 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis treats nonparticipating preferred as participating preferred.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is the payout to other holders, not the preferred investor.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis pays both the full preference and full as-converted share.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis chooses the less valuable option rather than the greater available payout.
Question 7 · Convertible note with interest, cap, and discount
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: B
Conversion balance = 1.1×(1+0.06×2) = 1.2320 million. Discount price = $3.00; cap price = $2.60. Use $2.60. Shares = 1.2320 million / 2.60 = 473,846.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis excludes accrued interest from the conversion amount.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the discount price even though the cap produces a lower conversion price.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the new investors’ price without either note protection.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the discount to the cap price, stacking protections that are alternatives.
Question 8 · Uncapped participating preferred proceeds
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
First pay 4 million. Remaining proceeds = 30−4 = 26. Investor participation = 0.25×26. Total = 4+0.25×26 = $10.50 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes straight conversion and omits participation after the preference.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is the distribution to the other shareholders.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis pays only the preference and ignores participation.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis calculates participation on all exit proceeds, double-counting the preference amount.
Question 9 · Post-money SAFEs followed by new equity
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: C
SAFE ownership before the priced round is 10.0000%+6.0000%. Founder ownership before the round is 84.0000%. Multiply by 80% retained after the round: 67.20%. The capitalization convention is stipulated to avoid document-specific SAFE ambiguities.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is founder ownership before the priced-round dilution.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts priced-round dilution as percentage points instead of multiplying the remaining founder stake.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis sequentially dilutes the SAFEs, contrary to the stated post-money convention.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the SAFE ownership sold before the round.
Question 10 · Senior and junior liquidation preferences
Easy (2/8)
Correct answer: A
Pay senior Series B 5.00 first. Remaining proceeds = 7.50−5.00 = 2.50. Series A receives the lesser of that remainder and its 4.00 claim: $2.50 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis pays Series A in full although insufficient cash remains after the senior claim.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is the residual for common holders after preferences.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the senior Series B claim, not Series A’s payout.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis uses a pro-rata split even though the claims have different seniority.
Question 11 · Fully diluted ownership after a priced round
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: B
Pre-money fully diluted shares = 8.00 million. Price = 16/8 = $2.0000. New shares = 4/2.0000 = 2.0000 million. Founder ownership = 6/(8+2.0000) = 60.00%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is the percentage held by all pre-round fully diluted holders, not founders alone.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis gives the pre-round founder percentage.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the unissued option reserve from post-round fully diluted shares.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts an investment/pre-money ratio instead of issuing new shares and recomputing the denominator.
Question 12 · Pre-money option-pool top-up and founder dilution
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: C
Let x be new pool shares in millions. Post-financing shares = (10+x)×(1+8/24). Solve 0.8+x = 0.16×(10+x)×1.333333, giving x=1.694915. Founder ownership = 7/[(10+1.694915)×1.333333] = 44.89%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis includes the top-up but omits new investor shares.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the pre-money option-pool top-up.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis sizes the reserve as a percentage of old pre-money shares instead of final post-financing shares.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts the entire target pool again even though an existing pool is already included.
Question 13 · Participation cap versus voluntary conversion
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
Uncapped participation would pay 5+0.3×(45−5) = 17.00, but preferred proceeds are capped at 10.00. Conversion pays 0.3×45 = 13.50. Choose $13.50 million. The preferred cap does not cap the separate common-conversion alternative.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the participation cap while retaining preferred status.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis gives the investor both its preference and a full common share of total exit proceeds.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the preferred cap but ignores the higher available conversion payout.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is the payout to the remaining shareholders.
Question 14 · Equal-ranking preference claims in a shortfall
Easy (2/8)
Correct answer: A
Series A’s claim fraction = 7.5/(7.5+5). Multiply by available cash of 8: Series A receives $4.80 million. Equal-ranking claims share the shortfall proportionately.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis pays Series A in full despite the equal-ranking shortfall allocation.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is Series B’s pro-rata payout.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis incorrectly pays Series B first as a senior claim.
E. Why this choice falls shortEqual ranking does not mean equal dollars when claim sizes differ.
Question 15 · Equal-ranking preference claims in a shortfall
Easy (2/8)
Correct answer: D
Series A’s claim fraction = 6/(6+4). Multiply by available cash of 7: Series A receives $4.20 million. Equal-ranking claims share the shortfall proportionately.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis pays Series A in full despite the equal-ranking shortfall allocation.
B. Why this choice falls shortEqual ranking does not mean equal dollars when claim sizes differ.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is Series B’s pro-rata payout.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis incorrectly pays Series B first as a senior claim.
Question 16 · Convertible note with interest, cap, and discount
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: E
Conversion balance = 0.8×(1+0.08×1.5) = 0.8960 million. Discount price = $2.40; cap price = $2.00. Use $2.00. Shares = 0.8960 million / 2.00 = 448,000.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis excludes accrued interest from the conversion amount.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the new investors’ price without either note protection.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the discount price even though the cap produces a lower conversion price.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the discount to the cap price, stacking protections that are alternatives.
Question 17 · Uncapped participating preferred proceeds
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: B
First pay 3 million. Remaining proceeds = 24−3 = 21. Investor participation = 0.2×21. Total = 3+0.2×21 = $7.20 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis pays only the preference and ignores participation.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is the distribution to the other shareholders.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis calculates participation on all exit proceeds, double-counting the preference amount.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes straight conversion and omits participation after the preference.
Question 18 · Fully diluted ownership after a priced round
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: D
Pre-money fully diluted shares = 10.00 million. Price = 20/10.0 = $2.0000. New shares = 5/2.0000 = 2.5000 million. Founder ownership = 7/(10.0+2.5000) = 56.00%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts an investment/pre-money ratio instead of issuing new shares and recomputing the denominator.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the unissued option reserve from post-round fully diluted shares.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis gives the pre-round founder percentage.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is the percentage held by all pre-round fully diluted holders, not founders alone.
Question 19 · Founder ownership across two financings
Easy (2/8)
Correct answer: B
Founders retain (1−0.2) of their prior stake after Series A and then (1−0.25) after Series B. Final founder stake = 0.72×0.8×0.75 = 43.20%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis applies only Series B dilution.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis stops after Series A and ignores Series B.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis adds dilution rates instead of compounding the two rounds.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts percentage points from founder ownership instead of applying each round to the remaining stake.
Question 20 · Full-ratchet protection and founder ownership
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
Earlier common-equivalent shares = 2×4/2 = 4.00 million. New-round shares = 4/2 = 2.00 million. Founder stake = 6/(6+4.00+2.00) = 50.00%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis counts both the original and adjusted common-equivalent shares instead of replacing the original conversion amount.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis prices the new investment at the old price and ignores anti-dilution protection.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the earlier investor’s ownership, not founders’ ownership.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the ratchet increase in common-equivalent shares.
Practice Exam D · Fund waterfalls & carry
Fees, fund multiples, preferred returns, full and partial catch-up, clawbacks, and LP IRR.
20 questions · Suggested pace: 90 minutes.
Skip to this exam’s solutions
Question 1
Medium (3/8)
LPs have paid $85 million into a fund, including fees. They have received $68 million in cash distributions. Their remaining net asset value is $102 million, already net of accrued carry and unpaid fund liabilities. Total commitments are $120 million. What is net TVPI using the paid-in capital denominator, rounded to two decimals?
- 1.20×
- 1.42×
- 0.80×
- 2.00×
- 1.00×
Question 2
Medium (4/8)
LPs contribute $100 million. At final liquidation, the fund has $178 million available for distribution after all fund expenses and fees. The waterfall first returns all LP contributed capital, then allocates remaining profit 22.5% to the GP and the balance to LPs. There is no preferred return, GP capital commitment, or earlier distribution. What total amount goes to LPs, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $160.45 million
- $137.95 million
- $60.45 million
- $17.55 million
- $117.55 million
Question 3
Medium (4/8)
LPs contribute $85 million today, with no interim contributions or distributions. After 3 years, $132 million is available after fees. The waterfall returns capital, pays an 8% annually compounded preferred return to LPs, and allocates any residual 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP capital commitment. What is the GP’s final carry distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $22.08 million
- $6.57 million
- $4.98 million
- $9.40 million
- $5.32 million
Question 4
Medium (5/8)
A fund has $120 million of commitments, all of which will be called. It charges 2.25% per year on commitments for the first 3 years, then 1.75% per year on a fixed $70 million invested-capital fee base for the next 4 years. It also pays $3.0 million of fund expenses. Fees and expenses are paid from commitments. Ignore fee offsets, recycling, borrowing, and investment returns. How much capital remains available for investments, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $107.00 million
- $98.10 million
- $104.00 million
- $16.00 million
- $113.08 million
Question 5
Medium (4/8)
LPs contribute $90 million at time zero and receive no earlier distributions. The fund distributes $130 million after 4 years. The waterfall returns contributed capital, then pays LPs a 7% annual simple preferred return on that capital, then splits any remaining profit 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP commitment. Fees are already reflected in the available proceeds. What is GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $6.74 million
- $8.00 million
- $2.41 million
- $26.00 million
- $2.96 million
Question 6
Medium (3/8)
LPs have paid $72 million into a fund, including fees. They have received $54 million in cash distributions. Their remaining net asset value is $81 million, already net of accrued carry and unpaid fund liabilities. Total commitments are $100 million. What is net TVPI using the paid-in capital denominator, rounded to two decimals?
- 1.88×
- 0.75×
- 0.88×
- 1.12×
- 1.35×
Question 7
Medium (4/8)
LPs contribute $80 million. At final liquidation, the fund has $142 million available for distribution after all fund expenses and fees. The waterfall first returns all LP contributed capital, then allocates remaining profit 20.0% to the GP and the balance to LPs. There is no preferred return, GP capital commitment, or earlier distribution. What total amount goes to LPs, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $113.60 million
- $12.40 million
- $129.60 million
- $49.60 million
- $92.40 million
Question 8
Medium (4/8)
LPs pay $60 million at time zero, including all fees and fund expenses. There are no other capital calls or interim distributions. After 7 years, the fund has $138 million available before carry. LPs first receive their full $60 million back; remaining profit is split 80% LP and 20% GP, with no preferred return. What is LP net annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?
- 104.0%
- 10.7%
- 14.9%
- 12.6%
- 9.1%
Question 9
Medium (4/8)
LPs pay $50 million at time zero, including all fees and fund expenses. There are no other capital calls or interim distributions. After 6 years, the fund has $110 million available before carry. LPs first receive their full $50 million back; remaining profit is split 80% LP and 20% GP, with no preferred return. What is LP net annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?
- 11.9%
- 16.0%
- 9.9%
- 96.0%
- 14.0%
Question 10
Hard (7/8)
A fund invests $35 million in Deal A and $40 million in Deal B. Deal A exits first for $93 million, and the GP is allocated 20% of that deal’s profit as carry; 25% of this carry is held in escrow and the rest is paid in cash. Deal B later exits for $22 million. Final permitted GP carry is 20% of aggregate fund profit after both investment costs. Apply escrow first to any overpaid carry. Ignore taxes, fees, and preferences. How much additional cash must the GP return beyond escrow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $0.70 million
- $3.60 million
- $8.70 million
- $6.50 million
- $2.90 million
Question 11
Medium (4/8)
LPs contribute $70 million at time zero and receive no earlier distributions. The fund distributes $105 million after 3 years. The waterfall returns contributed capital, then pays LPs a 8% annual simple preferred return on that capital, then splits any remaining profit 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP commitment. Fees are already reflected in the available proceeds. What is GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $3.36 million
- $5.88 million
- $3.64 million
- $7.00 million
- $21.00 million
Question 12
Hard (6/8)
LPs contribute $70 million 3 years before liquidation and $40 million 1 years before liquidation. There are no earlier distributions. Each contribution earns an 8% annually compounded preferred return only for the time it is outstanding. After capital and all preferred profit are paid, a 100% GP catch-up makes GP profit equal 20% of cumulative distributed profit, followed by an 80/20 residual split. Assume enough cash to complete catch-up. What is the catch-up tranche alone, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $21.38 million
- $7.14 million
- $4.28 million
- $5.34 million
- $5.00 million
Question 13
Hard (7/8)
A fund invests $28 million in Deal A and $32 million in Deal B. Deal A exits first for $76 million, and the GP is allocated 20% of that deal’s profit as carry; 25% of this carry is held in escrow and the rest is paid in cash. Deal B later exits for $16 million. Final permitted GP carry is 20% of aggregate fund profit after both investment costs. Apply escrow first to any overpaid carry. Ignore taxes, fees, and preferences. How much additional cash must the GP return beyond escrow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $7.20 million
- $5.60 million
- $2.40 million
- $3.20 million
- $0.80 million
Question 14
Hard (6/8)
A waterfall has $123 million available. It first returns $100 million of LP capital and pays LPs $18 million of accrued preferred profit. The next tier allocates 80% to the GP and 20% to LPs until the GP has received 20% of all distributed profit, excluding returned capital. Any later residual is split 20% GP and 80% LP. There are no prior distributions or GP contributions. What total does the GP receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $14.40 million
- $4.60 million
- $4.00 million
- $5.00 million
- $1.00 million
Question 15
Medium (5/8)
A fund has $90 million of commitments, all of which will be called. It charges 2.00% per year on commitments for the first 4 years, then 1.50% per year on a fixed $52 million invested-capital fee base for the next 3 years. It also pays $2.2 million of fund expenses. Fees and expenses are paid from commitments. Ignore fee offsets, recycling, borrowing, and investment returns. How much capital remains available for investments, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $11.74 million
- $85.22 million
- $78.26 million
- $80.46 million
- $75.20 million
Question 16
Hard (6/8)
A waterfall has $151 million available. It first returns $120 million of LP capital and pays LPs $24 million of accrued preferred profit. The next tier allocates 80% to the GP and 20% to LPs until the GP has received 20% of all distributed profit, excluding returned capital. Any later residual is split 20% GP and 80% LP. There are no prior distributions or GP contributions. What total does the GP receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $19.20 million
- $5.60 million
- $7.00 million
- $6.20 million
- $1.40 million
Question 17
Hard (6/8)
At liquidation, $130 million is available. The LPA requires: first, return $80 million of LP capital; second, pay a stipulated $16 million accrued preferred return to LPs; third, allocate 100% to the GP until its cumulative share of distributed profit equals 20%; fourth, split further profit 80% LP and 20% GP. Contributed capital is excluded from the profit calculation. There are no GP contributions or earlier distributions. What is total GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $26.00 million
- $4.00 million
- $10.00 million
- $6.80 million
- $9.36 million
Question 18
Hard (6/8)
LPs contribute $55 million 4 years before liquidation and $35 million 2 years before liquidation. There are no earlier distributions. Each contribution earns an 8% annually compounded preferred return only for the time it is outstanding. After capital and all preferred profit are paid, a 100% GP catch-up makes GP profit equal 20% of cumulative distributed profit, followed by an 80/20 residual split. Assume enough cash to complete catch-up. What is the catch-up tranche alone, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $25.65 million
- $8.11 million
- $5.13 million
- $5.80 million
- $6.41 million
Question 19
Medium (4/8)
LPs contribute $65 million today, with no interim contributions or distributions. After 4 years, $108 million is available after fees. The waterfall returns capital, pays an 8% annually compounded preferred return to LPs, and allocates any residual 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP capital commitment. What is the GP’s final carry distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $8.60 million
- $23.43 million
- $4.44 million
- $3.91 million
- $5.22 million
Question 20
Hard (6/8)
At liquidation, $165 million is available. The LPA requires: first, return $100 million of LP capital; second, pay a stipulated $22 million accrued preferred return to LPs; third, allocate 100% to the GP until its cumulative share of distributed profit equals 20%; fourth, split further profit 80% LP and 20% GP. Contributed capital is excluded from the profit calculation. There are no GP contributions or earlier distributions. What is total GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $12.12 million
- $8.60 million
- $13.00 million
- $5.50 million
- $33.00 million
Exam D · Worked solutions
Question 1 · Total value to paid-in capital
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: D
TVPI = (cash distributions + residual NAV)/paid-in capital = (68+102)/85 = 2.00×. DPI and RVPI are 0.80× and 1.20×; together they equal TVPI. Uncalled commitments do not enter the denominator.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is RVPI, which counts residual value but excludes distributions.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses commitments rather than capital actually paid in.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is DPI, which counts distributions but excludes residual value.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis reports gain relative to paid-in capital, not total value relative to paid-in capital.
Question 2 · LP distribution after return of capital and carry
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: A
Profit = 178−100 = 78. GP carry = 0.225×78 = 17.55. LPs receive capital plus their profit share: 100+(1−0.225)×78 = $160.45 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis includes the LP profit share but omits returned capital.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the GP carry distribution, not the LP distribution.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis gives LPs the carry percentage rather than the residual profit percentage.
Question 3 · Compounded preferred return without catch-up
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: C
LP preferred profit = 85×[(1.08)^3−1] = 22.0755. Residual after capital and preference = 132−85−22.0755. GP carry = 20% of the residual = $4.98 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is the LP preferred return, not GP carry.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis compounds the hurdle for one fewer year.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis assigns carry on all profit despite the no-catch-up preferred return.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis substitutes simple accrual for the specified annual compounding.
Question 4 · Investable capital after a fee step-down
Medium (5/8)
Correct answer: C
Initial-period fees = 120×0.0225×3 = 8.100. Later fees = 70×0.0175×4 = 4.900. Investable capital = 120−13.000−3 = $104.00 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis omits fund expenses.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the initial commitment-based fee throughout the fund life.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is capital consumed by fees and expenses, not capital left to invest.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis charges each annual fee only once rather than for its full period.
Question 5 · Simple preferred return without catch-up
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Simple preferred return = 90×0.07×4 = 25.20. Profit left after capital and preference = 130−90−25.20 = 14.80. With no catch-up, GP carry is 20% of only that remainder: $2.96 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis accrues only one year of the simple preferred return.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis gives the GP 20% of all profit as if there were full catch-up.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis compounds a preferred return explicitly stated to be simple.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis charges carry on capital as well as profit.
Question 6 · Total value to paid-in capital
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: A
TVPI = (cash distributions + residual NAV)/paid-in capital = (54+81)/72 = 1.88×. DPI and RVPI are 0.75× and 1.12×; together they equal TVPI. Uncalled commitments do not enter the denominator.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is DPI, which counts distributions but excludes residual value.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis reports gain relative to paid-in capital, not total value relative to paid-in capital.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is RVPI, which counts residual value but excludes distributions.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis uses commitments rather than capital actually paid in.
Question 7 · LP distribution after return of capital and carry
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: C
Profit = 142−80 = 62. GP carry = 0.2×62 = 12.40. LPs receive capital plus their profit share: 80+(1−0.2)×62 = $129.60 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is the GP carry distribution, not the LP distribution.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis includes the LP profit share but omits returned capital.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis gives LPs the carry percentage rather than the residual profit percentage.
Question 8 · LP net IRR after carry
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: B
LP final proceeds = 60+.80×(138−60) = 122.40. Solve −60+122.40/(1+IRR)^7=0. LP net IRR = (122.40/60)^(1/7)−1 = 10.7%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis reports the total LP holding-period return rather than annual IRR.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis divides the total return by years instead of compounding.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the return before carry, not the LP’s net return.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.
Question 9 · LP net IRR after carry
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: A
LP final proceeds = 50+.80×(110−50) = 98.00. Solve −50+98.00/(1+IRR)^6=0. LP net IRR = (98.00/50)^(1/6)−1 = 11.9%.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis divides the total return by years instead of compounding.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis reports the total LP holding-period return rather than annual IRR.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is the return before carry, not the LP’s net return.
Question 10 · Cash clawback after applying escrow
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: A
Early carry = .20×(93−35) = 11.60; escrow = 0.25×11.60 = 2.90. Final carry = .20×(93+22−35−40) = 8.00. Total clawback = 3.60. Additional cash beyond escrow = max(0,3.60−2.90) = $0.70 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is total overpaid carry before applying available escrow.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is all early cash carry paid to the GP, not the amount that must be repaid.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis adds escrow instead of using it to meet the repayment obligation.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is the escrow balance, not the additional GP cash required.
Question 11 · Simple preferred return without catch-up
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: C
Simple preferred return = 70×0.08×3 = 16.80. Profit left after capital and preference = 105−70−16.80 = 18.20. With no catch-up, GP carry is 20% of only that remainder: $3.64 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis compounds a preferred return explicitly stated to be simple.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis accrues only one year of the simple preferred return.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis gives the GP 20% of all profit as if there were full catch-up.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis charges carry on capital as well as profit.
Question 12 · Catch-up after staggered capital calls
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: D
Preferred profit = 70×(1.08^3−1)+40×(1.08^1−1) = 21.379840. Catch-up C solves C/(21.379840+C)=.20. Therefore C=21.379840×.20/.80 = $5.34 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is preferred profit paid to LPs, not GP catch-up.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis accrues the later contribution for the full initial investment period.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis takes 20% of LP preferred profit rather than solving GP/(LP profit+GP)=20%.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis uses simple rather than compounded preferred returns.
Question 13 · Cash clawback after applying escrow
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: E
Early carry = .20×(76−28) = 9.60; escrow = 0.25×9.60 = 2.40. Final carry = .20×(76+16−28−32) = 6.40. Total clawback = 3.20. Additional cash beyond escrow = max(0,3.20−2.40) = $0.80 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is all early cash carry paid to the GP, not the amount that must be repaid.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis adds escrow instead of using it to meet the repayment obligation.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is the escrow balance, not the additional GP cash required.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is total overpaid carry before applying available escrow.
Question 14 · An incomplete 80% GP catch-up tier
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
Cash remaining after capital and preference is 5.00. A full 80% catch-up tranche T solves .80T = .20×(18+T), so T = 6.00. Only 5.00 is available, so the catch-up is incomplete. GP receives .80×5.00 = $4.00 million; there is no final residual tier.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the catch-up percentage to preferred profit already paid to LPs.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes catch-up fully completes before cash runs out.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis allocates 100% of the catch-up tier to the GP rather than 80%.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the final carry split while the catch-up tier is still incomplete.
Question 15 · Investable capital after a fee step-down
Medium (5/8)
Correct answer: C
Initial-period fees = 90×0.02×4 = 7.200. Later fees = 52×0.015×3 = 2.340. Investable capital = 90−9.540−2.2 = $78.26 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is capital consumed by fees and expenses, not capital left to invest.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis charges each annual fee only once rather than for its full period.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis omits fund expenses.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the initial commitment-based fee throughout the fund life.
Question 16 · An incomplete 80% GP catch-up tier
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: B
Cash remaining after capital and preference is 7.00. A full 80% catch-up tranche T solves .80T = .20×(24+T), so T = 8.00. Only 7.00 is available, so the catch-up is incomplete. GP receives .80×7.00 = $5.60 million; there is no final residual tier.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the catch-up percentage to preferred profit already paid to LPs.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis allocates 100% of the catch-up tier to the GP rather than 80%.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes catch-up fully completes before cash runs out.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the final carry split while the catch-up tier is still incomplete.
Question 17 · Four-tier waterfall with full GP catch-up
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
Full catch-up C solves C/(16+C) = .20, so C = 16×.20/.80 = 4.00. Remaining cash = 130−80−16−4.00 = 30.00. GP total = 4.00+.20×30.00 = $10.00 million. Because catch-up completes, this equals 20% of total profit.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis includes returned capital in the carry base.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is the catch-up tranche alone, before the final residual split.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the catch-up and pays carry only on profit above the preferred return.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis sizes full catch-up as 20% of preferred profit instead of 20%/80% of it.
Question 18 · Catch-up after staggered capital calls
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: E
Preferred profit = 55×(1.08^4−1)+35×(1.08^2−1) = 25.650893. Catch-up C solves C/(25.650893+C)=.20. Therefore C=25.650893×.20/.80 = $6.41 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is preferred profit paid to LPs, not GP catch-up.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis accrues the later contribution for the full initial investment period.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis takes 20% of LP preferred profit rather than solving GP/(LP profit+GP)=20%.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses simple rather than compounded preferred returns.
Question 19 · Compounded preferred return without catch-up
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: D
LP preferred profit = 65×[(1.08)^4−1] = 23.4318. Residual after capital and preference = 108−65−23.4318. GP carry = 20% of the residual = $3.91 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis assigns carry on all profit despite the no-catch-up preferred return.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis is the LP preferred return, not GP carry.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis substitutes simple accrual for the specified annual compounding.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis compounds the hurdle for one fewer year.
Question 20 · Four-tier waterfall with full GP catch-up
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
Full catch-up C solves C/(22+C) = .20, so C = 22×.20/.80 = 5.50. Remaining cash = 165−100−22−5.50 = 37.50. GP total = 5.50+.20×37.50 = $13.00 million. Because catch-up completes, this equals 20% of total profit.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis sizes full catch-up as 20% of preferred profit instead of 20%/80% of it.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the catch-up and pays carry only on profit above the preferred return.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the catch-up tranche alone, before the final residual split.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis includes returned capital in the carry base.
Practice Exam E · Financing & mixed challenges
Startup beta, WACC, debt capacity, APV, and mixed quantitative applications.
20 questions · Suggested pace: 100 minutes.
Skip to this exam’s solutions
Question 1
Hard (7/8)
Two comparable firms have equity betas of 1.80 and 1.50, with market debt/equity ratios of 0.60 and 0.25, respectively. Use a 25% tax rate, zero debt beta, and the standard tax-adjusted beta unlevering relation. Average the two unlevered betas equally, then relever at the startup’s target debt/equity ratio of 0.40. The risk-free rate is 4.2% and market equity risk premium is 6.0%. Assume no extra premium. What CAPM cost of equity results, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 11.71%
- 7.13%
- 14.10%
- 13.32%
- 13.97%
Question 2
Medium (4/8)
An investor paid $5 million for 30% ownership on an as-converted basis. Its preferred shares carry a 1.2× nonparticipating liquidation preference. At exit, $24 million is available to distribute after all debt and transaction costs. The investor may either take its preference or convert to common, but cannot do both. There are no other preferred claims. How much does the investor receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $16.80 million
- $13.20 million
- $7.20 million
- $6.00 million
- $11.40 million
Question 3
Medium (4/8)
An existing investor owns 25% of a startup’s fully diluted shares before a round. Outside investors commit $6.0 million at a fixed $20 million pre-money valuation. The existing investor can invest an additional amount at the same price to maintain its 25% ownership after the entire round. Its check increases total round proceeds rather than replacing outside money. No other capitalization changes occur. What must it invest, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $1.50 million
- $6.50 million
- $8.00 million
- $4.50 million
- $2.00 million
Question 4
Medium (4/8)
A company reports EBITDA of $5.30 million. This includes a one-time legal expense of $0.80 million and a nonrecurring gain of $0.40 million. Treat both as nonrecurring for this exercise. Apply a 8.0× EV/EBITDA multiple to normalized EBITDA. Excess cash is $1.5 million and debt is $5.0 million, with no other claims. What is indicated equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $38.90 million
- $42.10 million
- $29.30 million
- $48.50 million
- $45.60 million
Question 5
Hard (6/8)
Two mutually exclusive projects have the same three-year life and risk. Project A costs $0.90 million today and pays $0.39 million at each of the next three year-ends. Project B costs $1.30 million today and pays $0.55 million at each year-end. Capital is available for either project, and there are no later cash flows. Use a 14% opportunity cost of capital. What is NPV(B) minus NPV(A), expressed in millions and rounded to three decimal places?
- $0.029 million
- $0.080 million
- −$0.023 million
- $0.371 million
- −$0.029 million
Question 6
Easy (2/8)
An exit provides $9.0 million after debt and transaction costs. Series B has a senior liquidation claim of $6.0 million. Series A has a junior liquidation claim of $5.0 million. Both are nonparticipating, and neither converts. The documents pay Series B in full before Series A; common is paid last. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $3.00 million
- $5.00 million
- $4.09 million
- $6.00 million
- $0.00 million
Question 7
Medium (4/8)
A startup needs $360,000 exactly 30 months from today to meet a planned equipment payment. It currently has no money set aside for this obligation. It will make equal deposits at each month-end into an account earning a nominal annual rate of 7.2%, compounded monthly. The last deposit is made on the payment date. What monthly deposit is required, rounded to the nearest dollar?
- $12,000
- $3,676
- $10,988
- $10,923
- $13,148
Question 8
Hard (6/8)
A project’s unlevered value today is $18.0 million. It will be financed partly by $5.0 million of fixed interest-only debt outstanding for 4 years, repaid at maturity. The annual debt rate is 8%, the tax rate is 25%, and interest deductions are fully usable each year. Discount the annual tax shields at the debt rate. Financing creates a one-time $0.3 million fee today. Ignore other financing effects. What is adjusted present value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $18.95 million
- $18.10 million
- $18.33 million
- $18.03 million
- $23.03 million
Question 9
Hard (7/8)
A company needs $3.2 million of new funding and can supply $0.5 million internally. Its Year 1–3 cash available for debt service is $0.84, $0.70, and $0.57 million. A new three-year loan repays one-third of original principal at each year-end and charges 10% annual interest on beginning-of-year principal. The lender requires debt-service coverage of at least 1.5× each year. There is no existing debt, balloon payment, or other debt limit. Using maximum feasible debt, how much equity must be raised, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $1.66 million
- $1.82 million
- $2.16 million
- $1.41 million
- $1.04 million
Question 10
Medium (4/8)
A company has equity market value of $28 million and debt market value of $12 million. Book equity is $14 million. Its cost of equity is 16%, pre-tax debt cost is 9.0%, and tax rate is 25%. Assume interest deductions are fully usable now, no preferred equity exists, and this capital mix is the target structure. What WACC should discount operating FCFF of matching risk, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 11.73%
- 11.38%
- 13.90%
- 13.22%
- 10.42%
Question 11
Medium (4/8)
Preferred stock’s existing conversion price is $5.00. For the contractual broad-based weighted-average adjustment, A is the 12.0 million common-equivalent shares outstanding before the new issue, B is the number of shares the new consideration would buy at the old conversion price, and C is the number actually issued. A down round raises $8.0 million at $2.50 per share. Apply the standard adjustment CPnew = CPold × (A+B)/(A+C). What is the adjusted conversion price, rounded to two decimals?
- $3.95
- $5.59
- $4.47
- $2.50
- $4.05
Question 12
Medium (3/8)
A company sells one monthly service plan for $320 per customer. Variable cash delivery and support costs are $120 per customer per month. Fixed monthly operating cash costs are $76,000. The founder has already paid $45,000 for equipment, and monthly depreciation is $2,000. Ignore taxes, financing, further equipment purchases, and working-capital changes. How many active customers are needed for monthly operating cash break-even?
- 380
- 390
- 605
- 633
- 238
Question 13
Hard (6/8)
A project’s unlevered value today is $23.0 million. It will be financed partly by $6.0 million of fixed interest-only debt outstanding for 5 years, repaid at maturity. The annual debt rate is 9%, the tax rate is 25%, and interest deductions are fully usable each year. Discount the annual tax shields at the debt rate. Financing creates a one-time $0.4 million fee today. Ignore other financing effects. What is adjusted present value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $23.53 million
- $24.10 million
- $23.13 million
- $23.28 million
- $29.13 million
Question 14
Hard (7/8)
A company needs $3.8 million of new funding and can supply $0.6 million internally. Its Year 1–3 cash available for debt service is $1.02, $0.84, and $0.66 million. A new three-year loan repays one-third of original principal at each year-end and charges 12% annual interest on beginning-of-year principal. The lender requires debt-service coverage of at least 1.4× each year. There is no existing debt, balloon payment, or other debt limit. Using maximum feasible debt, how much equity must be raised, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $1.94 million
- $2.16 million
- $2.54 million
- $1.26 million
- $1.59 million
Question 15
Medium (4/8)
A subscription firm spends $126,000 on sales and marketing and acquires 140 new customers. Each pays $150 per month. Gross margin is 60%; the firm also reports fixed corporate overhead of $18,000 per month. Assume all acquisition spending is attributable to these customers, monthly billings equal revenue, and there is no churn. What is gross-profit CAC payback, expressed in months and rounded to one decimal place?
- 1400.0 months
- 10.0 months
- 15.0 months
- 6.0 months
- 120.0 months
Question 16
Medium (4/8)
All amounts are in millions. A startup reports net income of -1.70, depreciation of 0.60, and noncash stock compensation of 0.40. Accounts receivable increases by 0.65, accounts payable by 0.25, and deferred revenue by 2.00. These are the only noncash adjustments and operating working-capital changes. The company also pays 0.90 for equipment. What is operating cash flow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $0.50 million
- −$1.10 million
- −$0.00 million
- $2.20 million
- $0.90 million
Question 17
Medium (4/8)
A company has equity market value of $36 million and debt market value of $14 million. Book equity is $18 million. Its cost of equity is 17%, pre-tax debt cost is 9.5%, and tax rate is 25%. Assume interest deductions are fully usable now, no preferred equity exists, and this capital mix is the target structure. What WACC should discount operating FCFF of matching risk, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 11.18%
- 14.90%
- 12.68%
- 14.24%
- 12.06%
Question 18
Hard (6/8)
A startup project costs $4.0 million today and pays only at the end of Year 3. The business succeeds with probability 65%, paying $10.0 million; otherwise it pays $1.0 million. These are the only cash flows and the probabilities already capture project failure. An asset beta of 1.4, risk-free rate of 4%, and market equity risk premium of 6% are appropriate for discounting these expected unlevered cash flows under the model. There is no debt or tax adjustment. What is project NPV, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?
- $2.85 million
- $0.82 million
- −$1.86 million
- $4.82 million
- $3.04 million
Question 19
Hard (7/8)
Two comparable firms have equity betas of 1.68 and 1.44, with market debt/equity ratios of 0.50 and 0.25, respectively. Use a 25% tax rate, zero debt beta, and the standard tax-adjusted beta unlevering relation. Average the two unlevered betas equally, then relever at the startup’s target debt/equity ratio of 0.30. The risk-free rate is 4.0% and market equity risk premium is 5.5%. Assume no extra premium. What CAPM cost of equity results, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 11.85%
- 12.20%
- 10.69%
- 6.24%
- 12.58%
Question 20
Hard (6/8)
Founders hold 7.0 million common shares. An earlier investor holds 2.5 million preferred shares, originally convertible one-for-one at a $4.80 conversion price. A down round raises $6.0 million at $2.40 per share. Full-ratchet protection resets the earlier conversion price to the down-round price; its new conversion ratio equals old conversion price divided by new conversion price. No pool or other securities exist. What is founders’ fully diluted ownership after the round, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?
- 65.12%
- 58.33%
- 41.18%
- 34.48%
- 48.28%
Exam E · Worked solutions
Question 1 · Startup CAPM from two public comparables
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: E
Unlever each beta: βu=βe/[1+(1−T)D/E]. Equal-weight average βu = 1.252269. Relevered βe = 1.252269×[1+.75×0.4] = 1.627949. Cost of equity = 0.042+1.627949×0.06 = 13.97%. This estimates systematic risk, not every startup-specific risk.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses asset beta directly and omits relevering at the target debt/equity ratio.
B. Why this choice falls shortThe equity risk premium is already net of the risk-free rate; subtracting it again understates the premium.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis averages levered peer betas without adjusting for leverage differences and the target capital structure.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis inserts a debt/value weight into a beta relation that requires debt/equity.
Question 2 · Nonparticipating preferred at exit
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: C
Preference payout = 5×1.2 = 6.00. Conversion payout = 0.3×24 = 7.20. Nonparticipating preferred elects the larger: $7.20 million.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis is the payout to other holders, not the preferred investor.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis pays both the full preference and full as-converted share.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis chooses the less valuable option rather than the greater available payout.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis treats nonparticipating preferred as participating preferred.
Question 3 · Pro-rata investment when the outside check is fixed
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
Let x be the insider check. Maintaining its stake requires x = 0.25×(6+x). Thus x = 0.25×6/(1−0.25) = $2.00 million. The insider funds its percentage of the entire enlarged round.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes the outside commitment is the total round rather than adding the insider’s check.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the ownership percentage to company value rather than solving for the incremental investment.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis is total round proceeds, not the existing investor’s check.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the other holders’ ownership percentage.
Question 4 · Normalized EBITDA and comparable value
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: B
Normalized EBITDA = 5.30+0.80−0.40 = 5.70. EV = 5.70×8.0. Equity = EV + 1.5−5.0 = $42.10 million. Normalization removes both unusual costs and unusual gains.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the multiple before normalizing the one-time items.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis subtracts the one-time expense again instead of adding it back.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis adds a nonrecurring gain instead of removing it.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis gives enterprise value before the cash-and-debt bridge.
Question 5 · Incremental value of the larger project
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: E
Incremental investment = 0.40; incremental annual cash flow = 0.16. NPV(B−A) = −0.40 + 0.16 × [1−(1+0.14)^(−3)]/0.14 = $-0.029 million. Comparing incremental NPV resolves the scale difference.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses B minus A.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis compares undiscounted cash totals.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis reports Project B’s standalone NPV rather than its incremental NPV over A.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis values incremental inflows but omits the larger initial investment.
Question 6 · Senior and junior liquidation preferences
Easy (2/8)
Correct answer: A
Pay senior Series B 6.00 first. Remaining proceeds = 9.00−6.00 = 3.00. Series A receives the lesser of that remainder and its 5.00 claim: $3.00 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis pays Series A in full although insufficient cash remains after the senior claim.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses a pro-rata split even though the claims have different seniority.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the senior Series B claim, not Series A’s payout.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is the residual for common holders after preferences.
Question 7 · Monthly reserve deposits for a future obligation
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: C
Monthly interest rate = 0.072/12 = 0.0060. FV = deposit × [((1+r)^30 − 1)/r]. Therefore deposit = 360,000 × 0.0060/[(1+0.0060)^30−1] = $10,988. Use END mode.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores interest earned on earlier deposits.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses the annual rate as the monthly rate.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis assumes beginning-of-month deposits rather than the stated month-end deposits.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis uses a present-value annuity factor for a future accumulation target.
Question 8 · APV with a finite interest tax shield
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: D
Annual tax shield = 5×0.08×.25 = 0.1000. PV(shields) = that annual amount × [1−(1+0.08)^(−4)]/0.08 = 0.3312. APV = unlevered value + PV(shields) − financing fee = $18.03 million. Principal repayment is not an interest deduction.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the permanent-debt tax-shield shortcut to debt that ends at maturity.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis sums tax shields without discounting them.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the financing fee.
E. Why this choice falls shortDebt proceeds are financing, not an additional increment to project value.
Question 9 · Debt capacity and the remaining equity raise
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: A
For original loan D, debt service in year t equals D/3 + 0.1×D×[1−(t−1)/3]. Each year implies a maximum D of 1.2923, 1.1667, 1.0364 million. Use the smallest, 1.0364. Required equity = 3.2−0.5−1.0364 = $1.66 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis charges interest on the original principal in every year rather than the declining beginning-of-year balance.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the internal funding already available.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis sizes debt from Year 1 alone and ignores the more restrictive later year.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis is maximum debt capacity, not the residual equity need.
Question 10 · WACC with market weights and usable tax shields
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: D
E/V = 28/40; D/V = 12/40. After-tax debt cost = 0.09×.75. WACC = (28/40)×0.16+(12/40)×0.09×.75 = 13.22%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis uses book equity rather than market-value capital weights.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis uses equal capital weights despite unequal market values.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the usable interest tax shield.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the tax shield to equity as well as debt.
Question 11 · Broad-based weighted-average anti-dilution
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: C
B = 8/5 = 1.60 million; C = 8/2.5 = 3.20 million. New conversion price = 5×(12+1.60)/(12+3.20) = $4.47. A broad-based weighted-average adjustment is less severe than a full ratchet in this example.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis omits B, the old-price equivalent of new consideration.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis reverses the numerator and denominator.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis applies full-ratchet protection instead of weighted-average protection.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis double-counts B in the denominator.
Question 12 · Operating cash break-even volume
Medium (3/8)
Correct answer: A
Monthly cash contribution per customer = 320 − 120 = 200. Break-even customers = 76000 / 200 = 380. The prior equipment purchase is sunk for this monthly calculation; depreciation is noncash.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis includes noncash depreciation in a cash break-even calculation.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis charges a historical equipment purchase against the current month’s operating cash break-even.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis divides fixed costs by variable cost instead of contribution per customer.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores variable delivery and support costs.
Question 13 · APV with a finite interest tax shield
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: C
Annual tax shield = 6×0.09×.25 = 0.1350. PV(shields) = that annual amount × [1−(1+0.09)^(−5)]/0.09 = 0.5251. APV = unlevered value + PV(shields) − financing fee = $23.13 million. Principal repayment is not an interest deduction.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the financing fee.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the permanent-debt tax-shield shortcut to debt that ends at maturity.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis sums tax shields without discounting them.
E. Why this choice falls shortDebt proceeds are financing, not an additional increment to project value.
Question 14 · Debt capacity and the remaining equity raise
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: A
For original loan D, debt service in year t equals D/3 + 0.12×D×[1−(t−1)/3]. Each year implies a maximum D of 1.6071, 1.4516, 1.2628 million. Use the smallest, 1.2628. Required equity = 3.8−0.6−1.2628 = $1.94 million.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis charges interest on the original principal in every year rather than the declining beginning-of-year balance.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the internal funding already available.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is maximum debt capacity, not the residual equity need.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis sizes debt from Year 1 alone and ignores the more restrictive later year.
Question 15 · Gross-profit CAC payback
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: B
CAC = $126,000 / 140 = $900. Monthly gross profit per customer = $150 × 60% = $90.00. Payback = CAC / monthly gross profit = 10.0 months. Corporate overhead is outside this stated gross-profit measure.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis fails to divide acquisition spending by the number of customers acquired.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis treats the cost-of-revenue percentage as gross margin.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis uses revenue rather than gross profit as the monthly recovery of acquisition cost.
E. Why this choice falls shortThe revenue input is already monthly. Multiplying the answer by 12 confuses months and years.
Question 16 · Operating cash flow from the indirect method
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: E
OCF = -1.70 + 0.60 + 0.40 − 0.65 + 0.25 + 2.00 = $0.90 million. Equipment spending is reported separately in investing cash flow. Positive OCF here partly reflects advance customer collections.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis fails to add back noncash stock compensation included in net income.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis omits cash collected before revenue recognition, reflected in the deferred-revenue increase.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis deducts equipment purchases from operating cash flow; they are investing cash flows.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis adds an increase in receivables instead of subtracting it.
Question 17 · WACC with market weights and usable tax shields
Medium (4/8)
Correct answer: D
E/V = 36/50; D/V = 14/50. After-tax debt cost = 0.095×.75. WACC = (36/50)×0.17+(14/50)×0.095×.75 = 14.24%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis applies the tax shield to equity as well as debt.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis omits the usable interest tax shield.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses book equity rather than market-value capital weights.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis uses equal capital weights despite unequal market values.
Question 18 · Expected cash flow and a systematic-risk discount rate
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: B
Expected Year 3 cash flow = .65×10+.35×1 = 6.85. CAPM rate = .04+1.4×.06 = 12.40%. NPV = −4+6.85/(1+0.124)³ = $0.82 million. Do not insert failure probability a second time as an arbitrary discount-rate increment.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the time value and systematic risk of the future expected payoff.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis adds the failure probability to the discount rate even though failure is already included in expected cash flow.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the PV of expected proceeds before the initial cost.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis discounts only the success payoff and ignores the stated failure probability.
Question 19 · Startup CAPM from two public comparables
Hard (7/8)
Correct answer: B
Unlever each beta: βu=βe/[1+(1−T)D/E]. Equal-weight average βu = 1.217225. Relevered βe = 1.217225×[1+.75×0.3] = 1.491100. Cost of equity = 0.04+1.491100×0.055 = 12.20%. This estimates systematic risk, not every startup-specific risk.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis inserts a debt/value weight into a beta relation that requires debt/equity.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis uses asset beta directly and omits relevering at the target debt/equity ratio.
D. Why this choice falls shortThe equity risk premium is already net of the risk-free rate; subtracting it again understates the premium.
E. Why this choice falls shortThis averages levered peer betas without adjusting for leverage differences and the target capital structure.
Question 20 · Full-ratchet protection and founder ownership
Hard (6/8)
Correct answer: E
Earlier common-equivalent shares = 2.5×4.8/2.4 = 5.00 million. New-round shares = 6/2.4 = 2.50 million. Founder stake = 7/(7+5.00+2.50) = 48.28%.
A. Why this choice falls shortThis prices the new investment at the old price and ignores anti-dilution protection.
B. Why this choice falls shortThis ignores the ratchet increase in common-equivalent shares.
C. Why this choice falls shortThis counts both the original and adjusted common-equivalent shares instead of replacing the original conversion amount.
D. Why this choice falls shortThis is the earlier investor’s ownership, not founders’ ownership.