Devon Coombs Academy · FIN143

FIN143 · Complete MCQ Answer Guide

400 graded MCQs with worked reasoning and feedback for every distractor, plus three ungraded exercises. The 293 original MCQs preserve the slide wording; 107 new quantitative questions extend the practice.

Easy (0–2): recall or direct application. Medium (3–5): connect steps or interpret inputs. Hard (6–8): integrate several steps, timing, or competing constraints. Scores combine reasoning (0–3), solution steps (0–3), and information handling (0–2). The same scale applies across courses after the concept is taught. These are practice guides, not student ability ratings or exam predictions. See the master index and scoring guide.

Week 1: Founder Archetype Matrix

Founder position

Easy (1/8)

W1-S006 · Source slide 6

A founder has deep experience in her target industry and enough investable capital for the business she plans. She wants flexibility and fulfilling work, with no current ambition to scale or sell. How is she positioned?

  1. Constrained, novice, growth
  2. Capitalized, novice, lifestyle
  3. Constrained, expert, growth
  4. Capitalized, expert, growth
  5. Capitalized, expert, lifestyle

Correct answer: E

Adequate available capital supports “capitalized.” Relevant experience supports “expert.” Her stated priorities support “lifestyle.”

A. Why this choice falls short

Misread the capital available for her plan.

B. Why this choice falls short

Misreads her industry expertise.

C. Why this choice falls short

Misread the capital available for her plan.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assigns a growth objective she has not expressed.

Related Week 1 deck

A control tradeoff

Easy (1/8)

W1-S014 · Source slide 14

A founder is offered capital that could accelerate growth. The deal requires shared board control and joint approval of major decisions. She declines because retaining authority matters more to her than the potential financial gain. Which framework most directly explains her choice?

  1. Effectuation: reasoning from available means
  2. The E-Myth: technical skill versus business management
  3. Bootstrapping: financing from limited internal or personal resources
  4. Rich vs. King: control versus potential financial value
  5. Product-market fit: evidence that customers want the offering

Correct answer: D

The stated reason is preserving decision authority despite a potential financial upside. That is the Rich vs. King tradeoff.

A. Why this choice falls short

The case does not turn on decision logic or a management-skill gap.

B. Why this choice falls short

The case does not turn on decision logic or a management-skill gap.

C. Why this choice falls short

Describes a financing approach, not her reason for rejecting this offer.

E. Why this choice falls short

The case does not say insufficient customer demand drove the choice.

Related Week 1 deck

Rich versus King

Medium (4/8)

W1-S016 · Source slide 16

A founder is choosing between two equity investment offers. Each provides $1.8 million and leaves her with 65% economic ownership of the company.

Angel offer: The founder appoints two of the company's three directors.

Venture-fund offer: The fund appoints two of the three directors and can replace the CEO by a majority board vote. The fund also offers distribution relationships that could increase the company's eventual value.

The founder chooses the angel offer. She explains that keeping decision authority matters more to her than the additional financial upside the fund might provide.

Which framework best explains her decision?

  1. The E-Myth: she prefers making decisions herself over accepting outside help. That preference shows she considers her technical skills sufficient to manage company growth.
  2. Affordable loss: she uses retained authority to limit her financial downside. The angel offer therefore meets her loss limit despite raising the same capital.
  3. Effectuation: she chooses the angel to preserve her existing resources. Accepting venture funding would replace her current starting point with goals chosen by investors.
  4. Wealth maximization: she keeps the same ownership under either offer and therefore retains equivalent control. The distribution relationships do not create a meaningful tradeoff.
  5. Rich versus King: she gives up potential financial upside to preserve decision authority. Equal ownership percentages do not make the offers equivalent in control.

Correct answer: E

Wasserman's framework concerns the tension between potential financial value and control. Here, the founder explicitly favors control. The governance terms establish that tension even though economic ownership is identical. The conclusion applies to these offers and does not imply that every venture investment removes founder control.

A. Why this choice falls short

No evidence establishes a technical-versus-managerial skill confusion. Wanting authority does not by itself show this error.

B. Why this choice falls short

Affordable loss concerns the resources or downside the founder can tolerate. The case instead identifies a preference for control over potential financial value.

C. Why this choice falls short

The offers concern governance and potential value. Investor type does not establish a means-based versus goal-directed decision process.

D. Why this choice falls short

Equal economic ownership does not confer equivalent governance rights. The offers expressly allocate board authority differently.

Related Week 1 deck

Reasoning from means

Easy (1/8)

W1-S020 · Source slide 20

A founder begins by listing her capabilities, relevant knowledge, and contacts. She explores what those resources make possible and limits the next experiment to a loss she can absorb. Which concept best fits?

  1. Effectuation, reasoning from available means
  2. Causation, selecting means for a defined goal
  3. Rich vs. King, choosing between wealth and control
  4. An entrepreneurial seizure, assuming technical skill is sufficient
  5. Structural-hole brokerage, connecting otherwise disconnected groups

Correct answer: A

The starting point is her existing means. An affordable commitment lets her act while the venture’s specific direction develops.

B. Why this choice falls short

Begins with a defined outcome, which the case has not fixed.

C. Why this choice falls short

No wealth-control choice is described.

D. Why this choice falls short

The case establishes neither the technical-skill assumption nor a brokerage position.

E. Why this choice falls short

The case establishes neither the technical-skill assumption nor a brokerage position.

Related Week 1 deck

Effectuation and causation

Medium (4/8)

W1-S022 · Source slide 22

Two founders are developing software for independent clinics. They take different approaches to deciding what to build:

Mira: She starts with her scheduling expertise, relationships with three clinic owners, and $4,000 she can afford to lose. Commitments from pilot customers help her decide which product to build and which clinics to serve first.

Jon: He starts with a goal of serving 50 clinics within one year. He estimates the resources needed, then develops a hiring and financing plan to reach that goal.

Both founders interview customers, prepare budgets, and revise their assumptions. An industry report forecasts 12% annual market growth.

Which explanation best distinguishes the decision-making approach each founder is using?

  1. Mira uses causation: she starts with resources she already knows. Jon uses effectuation: he adjusts his resources to pursue a newly identified market opportunity.
  2. Mira uses effectuation: she limits the personal money at risk. Jon uses causation: he considers outside financing, making their funding sources the key distinction.
  3. Mira uses effectuation: available resources and customer commitments shape her plans. Jon uses causation: a specific goal determines which resources he needs to acquire.
  4. Both use effectuation: customer interviews and revised assumptions make their plans experimental. The resources or goals they start with do not change that classification.
  5. Both use causation: budgets and market forecasts make their plans predictive. How they choose the initial product and customer segment does not change that.

Correct answer: C

The decisive distinction is the starting point. Mira reasons from available means and commitments toward an emerging opportunity. Jon begins with a specified outcome and works backward to the means required. Neither approach excludes research, budgeting, or later revision.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the two starting points. Causation begins with a specified effect or objective, while effectuation begins with available means.

B. Why this choice falls short

Funding source does not define the two logics. Either can use personal or external capital.

D. Why this choice falls short

Interviews, experimentation, and updating can occur under either logic. They do not erase the distinction in starting point.

E. Why this choice falls short

Effectuation can include budgets and forecasts. Mira still lets available means and commitments shape the opportunity.

Related Week 1 deck

Affordable loss

Hard (6/8)

W1-S024 · Source slide 24

A founder sets aside money to test a tutoring platform. Before beginning, she has $42,000 of personal savings and reserves $30,000 for household needs. She limits her total loss on the experiment to $12,000, including money already spent.

Her commitments are as follows:

She has already spent $2,400, which she cannot recover.

The next pilot requires a nonrefundable $6,800 vendor payment.

If the pilot fails, she may also owe a $1,200 termination payment.

A customer has provided a refundable $2,000 deposit, but it must be held separately and cannot fund the experiment. The founder forecasts $60,000 of annual profit if the product succeeds.

What is the largest additional nonrefundable marketing commitment she can make without exceeding her loss limit if the pilot fails and the termination payment becomes due?

  1. $1,600.
  2. $2,800.
  3. $4,000.
  4. $5,200.
  5. $9,600.

Correct answer: A

Maximum cumulative loss = $42,000 − $30,000 = $12,000. Remaining room for marketing = $12,000 − $2,400 − $6,800 − $1,200 = $1,600. The downside test includes the full stated termination exposure. The customer deposit is unavailable, and expected upside does not increase the founder's stated affordable loss.

B. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the $2,400 already spent and the $6,800 payment, but omits the possible $1,200 termination obligation.

C. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the new payment and termination obligation but ignores the $2,400 already counted against the cumulative cap.

D. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts only the $6,800 vendor payment, omitting both past losses and the termination obligation.

E. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts past spending but ignores both commitments created by the next pilot.

Related Week 1 deck

Introversion and the evidence

Medium (4/8)

W1-S028 · Source slide 28

An introverted founder asks whether her personality could make entrepreneurship harder. Which interpretation best combines the personality studies?

  1. The 2006 comparison shows that entrepreneurs must be more extraverted than managers.
  2. No status difference in 2006 means extraversion cannot matter for performance.
  3. The later performance association is small. Assess her actual capabilities and role demands.
  4. Introversion establishes that she has high neuroticism and poor stress tolerance.
  5. The performance association proves that introversion causes venture failure.

Correct answer: C

The status comparison and performance analysis ask different questions. The findings justify individual assessment, not a categorical screen.

A. Why this choice falls short

The 2006 entrepreneur-versus-manager comparison did not establish the claimed difference in extraversion. Do not turn a group comparison into an individual disqualification.

B. Why this choice falls short

Generalizes it to a different outcome.

D. Why this choice falls short

Extraversion and openness are separate Big Five dimensions. A score or finding about one is not a finding about the other.

E. Why this choice falls short

Converts an average association into a causal claim about failure.

Related Week 1 deck

Personality and observed behavior

Medium (4/8)

W1-S030 · Source slide 30

An investor evaluates a founder with high conscientiousness and low agreeableness. References describe her as disciplined, receptive to feedback, and effective at resolving disagreements. How should the investor use the assessment?

  1. Give standardized scores priority because they eliminate subjective bias.
  2. Ignore the assessment because favorable references settle the issue.
  3. Compare trait scores with observed behavior, references, and context.
  4. Predict team conflict from low agreeableness despite the behavioral evidence.
  5. Average scores and reference comments into a single founder-quality rating.

Correct answer: C

The assessment suggests questions about tendencies. References and observed behavior help test whether those tendencies matter here.

A. Why this choice falls short

Give one evidence source unwarranted authority.

B. Why this choice falls short

Give one evidence source unwarranted authority.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats a trait score as a behavioral certainty.

E. Why this choice falls short

Creates a numerical rating without a validated method or comparable inputs.

Related Week 1 deck

Confidence and evidence

Medium (4/8)

W1-S033 · Source slide 33

A founder treats enthusiastic interviews with four friends as evidence of broad demand. She also believes that her effort can overcome any competitor response. Which response best addresses the two reasoning risks?

  1. Raise the sales target and use additional interviews with friends to validate it.
  2. Lower the sales target and treat competitor behavior as entirely unpredictable.
  3. Test demand beyond the small sample and distinguish influence from control.
  4. Increase the cash reserve and use the founder’s confidence as demand evidence.
  5. Hire an experienced seller and retain the same demand and control assumptions.

Correct answer: C

Four friendly interviews may not represent target customers. Effort can influence outcomes without controlling customers or competitors. Test paid behavior in a broader, relevant group and consider adverse responses.

A. Why this choice falls short

Repeats the sampling problem.

B. Why this choice falls short

Changes a target without testing it.

D. Why this choice falls short

Confuses financial resilience with demand evidence.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds capability without correcting either assumption.

Related Week 1 deck

Different starting resources

Medium (4/8)

W1-S036 · Source slide 36

Two founders are evaluating the same opportunity. Founder A has ten years of directly relevant experience and 18 months of personal runway. Founder B has no relevant experience and three months of personal runway. Why should their advice differ?

  1. Capital mainly determines market attractiveness, while expertise determines the founder’s goals.
  2. Capital affects runway and loss capacity, while expertise informs customer understanding and execution.
  3. Capital determines the revenue model, while expertise determines the amount of equity to raise.
  4. Capital and expertise reduce risk in the same way, so either can replace market validation.
  5. Expertise makes short runway a secondary concern when the opportunity is attractive.

Correct answer: B

The founders have different financial buffers and learning needs. Those differences affect which commitments and timelines are feasible.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assign resources decision-making roles they do not determine.

C. Why this choice falls short

Assign resources decision-making roles they do not determine.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats distinct resources as substitutes for demand evidence.

E. Why this choice falls short

Expertise does not pay obligations. Company funding needs also require a separate assessment.

Related Week 1 deck

Capital without domain expertise

Easy (1/8)

W1-S038 · Source slide 38

A founder sold her previous company and has ample investable capital. She now enters an industry where she has never worked. Which resource profile and coaching priority fit best?

  1. Bootstrap Expert: focus primarily on a shortage of cash.
  2. Career Changer: develop domain knowledge before major commitments.
  3. Primed Founder: rely on expertise established by the previous exit.
  4. Aspiring Founder: address a shortage of both capital and experience.
  5. Career Changer: assume a lifestyle goal and plan a small business.

Correct answer: B

She is capitalized but new to this domain. Prior startup experience can help, while industry-specific assumptions still need testing.

A. Why this choice falls short

Misclassify her available capital.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats experience in one industry as expertise in another.

D. Why this choice falls short

Misclassify her available capital.

E. Why this choice falls short

Assumes a lifestyle goal the case does not establish.

Related Week 1 deck

Funding ahead of expertise

Medium (4/8)

W1-S043 · Source slide 43

A founder has raised substantial capital, has never worked in the target industry, and wants to scale aggressively. She has not yet tested the key customer assumptions. What should an advisor prioritize?

  1. Deploy capital quickly to establish market presence.
  2. Avoid all spending until customer revenue fully funds the business.
  3. Replace the growth goal with a lifestyle goal.
  4. Add domain expertise and require validation milestones before major expansion.
  5. Raise another round before assessing the nonfinancial gaps.

Correct answer: D

The case identifies gaps in expertise and customer evidence. Address those before committing heavily to a scaling plan.

A. Why this choice falls short

Increases spending before resolving the stated uncertainties.

B. Why this choice falls short

Could prevent useful, affordable learning.

C. Why this choice falls short

Overrides the founder’s goal.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds capital without first assessing the binding constraints.

Related Week 1 deck

One opportunity, different strategies

Medium (4/8)

W1-S045 · Source slide 45

Alex and Priya are evaluating the same attractive software opportunity. Alex has limited personal capital, deep industry expertise, and wants to retain control. Priya has substantial resources, accepts shared ownership, and wants to build quickly. Which approach best fits these differences?

  1. Alex explores capital-efficient growth. Priya evaluates investing or raising capital to accelerate progress.
  2. Both use the same financing and growth plan because the opportunity is identical.
  3. Alex prioritizes a large equity raise because expertise makes control preferences less relevant.
  4. Priya limits growth because having personal capital reduces the need to expand.

Correct answer: A

Alex’s cash and control preferences favor careful capital use. Priya’s resources and goals allow her to consider a faster investment path.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the founders’ different constraints and objectives.

C. Why this choice falls short

Expertise does not remove Alex’s control preference.

D. Why this choice falls short

Confuses the ability to self-fund with a preference against growth.

Related Week 1 deck

Connecting industry networks

Easy (1/8)

W1-S049 · Source slide 49

A career changer has strong contacts in her old industry. An advisor introduces her to a group in her new industry that rarely interacts with the first. She begins connecting people and sharing relevant ideas across the groups. Which concept explains the potential value of that position?

  1. Weak ties guarantee access to the resources she needs.
  2. Brokerage across a structural hole provides access to different information.
  3. Affordable loss determines which contacts she should trust.
  4. The E-Myth establishes that her technical skills are inadequate.
  5. Rich vs. King explains the information flowing between the groups.

Correct answer: B

The groups rarely interact, and she connects them. That is the structural feature that creates a possible brokerage advantage.

A. Why this choice falls short

Useful contact and a brokerage position are related but distinct ideas.

C. Why this choice falls short

Concerns downside commitments, not trust in contacts.

D. Why this choice falls short

Address management capabilities and control preferences, not network structure.

E. Why this choice falls short

Address management capabilities and control preferences, not network structure.

Related Week 1 deck

Different reasons to grow

Easy (0/8)

W1-S052 · Source slide 52

Two founders have similar capital and expertise, and both want to scale. One emphasizes wealth and competitive success. The other emphasizes advancing a societal cause. Which framework most directly distinguishes those motivations?

  1. The Big Five personality framework
  2. Smith’s Craftsman vs. Opportunistic Entrepreneur typology
  3. Wasserman’s Rich vs. King tradeoff
  4. Sarasvathy’s effectuation and causation
  5. Fauchart and Gruber’s founder identities

Correct answer: E

The stated motives align with Darwinian and Missionary orientations. Shared growth goals do not establish identical reasons for building the venture.

A. Why this choice falls short

Describes traits, not these identity commitments.

B. Why this choice falls short

Smith's typology concerns the founder's background and approach to entrepreneurship. Fauchart and Gruber more directly distinguish competitive-wealth motives from a societal mission.

C. Why this choice falls short

Rich versus King examines wealth and control. This scenario instead contrasts different purposes for building and growing a venture.

D. Why this choice falls short

Describes decision logic, not the underlying purpose.

Related Week 1 deck

The founder as a bottleneck

Easy (1/8)

W1-S056 · Source slide 56

A founder built the business through personal selling, customization, and direct problem-solving. Demand is now recurring and the team has reached 25 people, but routine decisions stall while waiting for her approval. Which action most directly addresses the stated bottleneck?

  1. Improve financial forecasts and cash planning.
  2. Standardize sales and customer onboarding.
  3. Delegate decision authority and establish management routines.
  4. Narrow the product range to reduce complexity.
  5. Hire experienced executives to add capabilities.

Correct answer: C

The immediate constraint is centralized authority. Clear decision rights and management routines let others act within defined limits.

A. Why this choice falls short

May help the business, but do not directly change who can approve decisions.

B. Why this choice falls short

May help the business, but do not directly change who can approve decisions.

D. Why this choice falls short

May help the business, but do not directly change who can approve decisions.

E. Why this choice falls short

Can add talent. It resolves this bottleneck only if authority also changes.

Related Week 1 deck

Darius’s next commitment

Medium (4/8)

W1-S060 · Source slide 60

Darius knows the product but is new to retail distribution and lacks grocery-buyer contacts. His savings are limited relative to his national ambition. Which next step best addresses these gaps while limiting financial exposure?

  1. Raise venture capital immediately, before evaluating the retail channel.
  2. Replace his national ambition with a lifestyle business.
  3. Commit his savings to national inventory to secure shelf space.
  4. Run a limited retail test and build relevant buyer relationships.
  5. Focus first on becoming more extraverted.

Correct answer: D

A limited test develops channel evidence. Buyer relationships address a specific access gap. Together, they inform the next capital commitment.

A. Why this choice falls short

Seeks a funding solution before clarifying the channel assumptions.

B. Why this choice falls short

Darius has stated a national growth goal. Replacing it with a lifestyle objective does not address his channel knowledge or buyer-access gaps.

C. Why this choice falls short

Raises exposure before validation.

E. Why this choice falls short

Assumes a personality problem the case does not establish.

Related Week 1 deck

Elena’s investment decision

Easy (1/8)

W1-S063 · Source slide 63

Elena has deep expertise and adequate capital, but explicitly wants a small business with sustainable income and manageable hours. Compared with Darius, which coaching emphasis best fits her goals?

  1. Validate locally and then scale nationally, just as Darius hopes to do.
  2. Raise outside capital because her resources and experience may attract it.
  3. Match business size and spending to her income and lifestyle goals.
  4. Prioritize hiring domain experts because capitalized founders lack expertise.
  5. Set an exit in five to seven years to match Darius’s timetable.

Correct answer: C

Her desired outcome is a sustainable business at a chosen scale. Income, workload, and investment limits help evaluate commitments against that goal.

A. Why this choice falls short

Import Darius’s objectives into Elena’s case.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses access to funding with a need for it.

D. Why this choice falls short

Contradicts her stated expertise.

E. Why this choice falls short

Import Darius’s objectives into Elena’s case.

Related Week 1 deck

Founder and financing judgment

Hard (6/8)

W1-S065 · Source slide 65

A founder has deep industry experience and wants to build a national business. Her company has five months of runway under its current plan. Paying customers in its initial region show promising retention, but demand in other regions has not been tested.

She is considering two alternatives:

Funded expansion: A venture fund offers enough capital for a 16-month expansion plan in exchange for shared board authority.

Narrower operating plan: The company postpones hiring, preserves founder control, and extends runway to nine months. It expects to complete a regional customer-validation milestone in month five.

The founder values both financial upside and decision authority but has not decided which matters more to her.

Which analysis would provide the strongest basis for choosing between the two plans?

  1. Compare customer retention and hiring capacity, then favor expansion if staffing supports it. Treat current regional loyalty as sufficient evidence that national demand is established.
  2. Compare investor commitments and the regional test, then favor expansion. Treat the fund's willingness to invest as stronger evidence of national demand than customer testing.
  3. Compare expected company values, then favor whichever plan offers greater upside. Treat her national ambition as evidence that financial gains outweigh sharing the board's authority.
  4. Compare runway and planned spending, then favor the narrower plan. Treat preserving control and reducing spending as sufficient evidence that this choice best serves her.
  5. Compare each plan's cash coverage, demand evidence, and governance terms. Clarify her priorities for wealth and control before she commits to expansion into new regions.

Correct answer: E

The facts do not establish a universally superior financing choice. They establish the dimensions the founder must compare: feasible cash coverage through learning, confidence in expansion demand, and control versus potential financial value. The narrower plan is a real alternative under the stated timing. The question asks for the strongest analysis rather than pretending that an unstated preference has a uniquely correct funding decision.

A. Why this choice falls short

Initial-region retention does not establish national demand or determine how the founder values governance rights.

B. Why this choice falls short

Investor willingness to fund is not customer-demand validation. The regional milestone and alternative cash path are relevant evidence.

C. Why this choice falls short

National ambition does not establish her ranking of wealth and control, or validate the expansion assumptions.

D. Why this choice falls short

A longer runway under a narrower plan and retained control do not by themselves show the best risk-adjusted outcome. Potential value and her preferences remain unresolved.

Related Week 1 deck

The CEO role

Easy (1/8)

W1-S070 · Source slide 70

An investor offers funding and experienced executives who could help build a more valuable company. The agreement would let the board replace the founder as CEO. She rejects it because remaining CEO is her overriding priority. Which explanation fits best?

  1. Effectuation, because she starts from existing means
  2. The E-Myth, because she is acting only as a technician
  3. Rich vs. King, because she prioritizes authority over potential financial value
  4. Bootstrapping, because external funding necessarily increases financial risk
  5. The Big Five, because her decision establishes low agreeableness

Correct answer: C

The offer puts her leadership authority in tension with potential value creation. Her stated preference resolves that tradeoff.

A. Why this choice falls short

Neither means-based reasoning nor a technical-skill assumption explains the stated motive.

B. Why this choice falls short

Neither means-based reasoning nor a technical-skill assumption explains the stated motive.

D. Why this choice falls short

Financing source alone does not establish the direction of risk.

E. Why this choice falls short

One decision cannot establish a personality trait.

Related Week 1 deck

Two decision logics

Easy (0/8)

W1-S072 · Source slide 72

Which statement best distinguishes effectuation from causation?

  1. Effectuation begins with available means and develops possible goals. Causation begins with a defined goal and selects the means.
  2. Effectuation begins with forecasts and expected return. Causation begins with means and affordable loss.
  3. Effectuation prioritizes founder control. Causation prioritizes company value.
  4. Effectuation explains technical-skill gaps. Causation explains domain expertise.
  5. Effectuation requires outside equity. Causation requires bootstrapping.

Correct answer: A

The distinction concerns what is taken as the starting point for action: available means or a specified outcome.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the two approaches.

C. Why this choice falls short

Substitute other frameworks for decision logic.

D. Why this choice falls short

Substitute other frameworks for decision logic.

E. Why this choice falls short

Neither approach requires a particular source of financing.

Related Week 1 deck

An unexpected customer pilot

Medium (4/8)

W1-S074 · Source slide 74

A founder starts without a fixed business idea. She inventories what she knows, whom she knows, and what she can afford to lose. After several conversations, a potential customer offers to pilot a use case she had not originally considered. Which response best reflects effectual reasoning?

  1. Accept the pilot if the downside is affordable, and let the customer’s commitment help shape the venture.
  2. Reject the pilot until she has fixed the target market and long-term strategy.
  3. Forecast every market, choose the highest expected return, and pursue only that opportunity.
  4. Raise enough money to enter several markets at once before choosing a direction.
  5. Wait until demand can be forecast reliably before making a commitment.

Correct answer: A

Her available means create a starting point. An affordable pilot and a customer commitment provide a way to learn and shape the opportunity.

B. Why this choice falls short

Require a predetermined direction or a predictive selection process.

C. Why this choice falls short

Require a predetermined direction or a predictive selection process.

D. Why this choice falls short

Expands commitments without first establishing an affordable next step.

E. Why this choice falls short

Delays action until uncertainty resolves, instead of learning through a bounded commitment.

Related Week 1 deck

The affordable-loss limit

Easy (1/8)

W1-S076 · Source slide 76

A founder is testing a tutoring platform. She has $20,000 in savings, but losing more than $5,000 would compromise her emergency reserve. Customer demand remains uncertain. Which initial decision best follows affordable loss?

  1. Commit all $20,000 because the opportunity looks attractive.
  2. Choose the highest forecast NPV even if the potential loss exceeds $5,000.
  3. Limit potential loss to $5,000 or less while testing demand.
  4. Spend nothing until demand can be forecast with confidence.
  5. Raise outside equity immediately to pursue the largest possible launch.

Correct answer: C

The case establishes $5,000 as the acceptable downside. The test can cost less. Include obligations as well as immediate cash spending.

A. Why this choice falls short

Exceed the stated loss limit.

B. Why this choice falls short

Exceed the stated loss limit.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats uncertainty as a reason to avoid any experiment.

E. Why this choice falls short

Pursues launch size before establishing the appropriate next commitment.

Related Week 1 deck

Profitable firms, different goals

Medium (4/8)

W1-S078 · Source slide 78

Maya and Jordan run equally profitable consulting firms with similar opportunities. Maya wants to serve about 15 clients, preserve Fridays off, and retain full control. Jordan wants a national firm, significant hiring, and an eventual sale. Which financing approach best fits?

  1. Maya raises expansion capital because her existing business is profitable.
  2. Both choose the same financing strategy because their business economics are similar.
  3. Maya may decline expansion capital, while Jordan may consider it to accelerate growth.
  4. Jordan avoids outside capital because rapid growth necessarily reduces founder value.

Correct answer: C

Maya’s desired capacity is limited. Jordan’s plan may require more resources and may justify accepting some financing tradeoffs.

A. Why this choice falls short

Profitability does not establish a desire for expansion.

B. Why this choice falls short

Similar economics do not imply identical objectives.

D. Why this choice falls short

The effect on founder value depends on economics, dilution, and terms.

Related Week 1 deck

Scaling and founder transition

Easy (1/8)

W1-S080 · Source slide 80

A founder succeeds early by personally selling, customizing the product, and solving problems directly.

Demand is now recurring, the team has grown to 25 employees, and most decisions still flow through the founder.

What should an advisor emphasize at this stage?

  1. Transition from direct execution to building scalable systems and delegating authority.
  2. Maintain personal oversight of all key operations to preserve early product quality.
  3. Immediately raise growth capital to expand the sales team before changing internal processes.
  4. Focus exclusively on product customization to win larger enterprise contracts.

Correct answer: A

The founder is now the decision bottleneck. Delegating authority and building repeatable systems allow the larger team to execute without routing every decision through one person.

B. Why this choice falls short

Keeping all important approvals with the founder preserves the bottleneck, even if quality remains a legitimate concern.

C. Why this choice falls short

More sellers can increase demand faster than the organization can deliver. Funding does not repair centralized decision-making.

D. Why this choice falls short

More customization adds demands on the founder and makes delivery harder to repeat at scale.

Related Week 1 deck

Runway, growth, and control

Medium (4/8)

W1-S082 · Source slide 82

A domain expert wants to build a national company. Her business has four months of runway. An investment offer would extend runway and support hiring, but requires shared governance. She also values control. Which analysis best integrates the course concepts?

  1. Compare liquidity needs, growth milestones, and the offer’s governance tradeoffs.
  2. Continue self-funding because expertise and effectuation make more capital unnecessary.
  3. Accept the offer because national ambitions determine the financing choice.
  4. Treat the offer as necessary because short runway outweighs control preferences.
  5. Defer the funding decision because expertise makes runway less important.

Correct answer: A

Runway creates financing pressure, growth requires resources, and governance terms affect a stated preference. Compare feasible alternatives before choosing.

B. Why this choice falls short

Expertise does not resolve cash requirements.

C. Why this choice falls short

Growth goals alone do not establish which financing is best.

D. Why this choice falls short

Short runway narrows options but does not establish that this specific offer is necessary.

E. Why this choice falls short

Expertise does not resolve cash requirements.

Related Week 1 deck

Week 2: Venture Economics Framework

Evidence of product–market fit

Easy (1/8)

W2-S010 · Source slide 10

Which observation provides the strongest evidence that a recurring-revenue startup has moved beyond early interest toward product–market fit?

  1. A large waitlist follows a widely shared social-media post, but few prospects have been asked to pay.
  2. Interviews consistently describe a painful problem, but the company has not launched a paid offering.
  3. A discounted launch generates many signups, but usage falls sharply after the promotion ends.
  4. A competitor raises a large financing round, suggesting investor interest in the category.
  5. Paid cohorts renew, usage remains strong, customers expand, and referrals bring additional paying customers.

Correct answer: E

Case: The question compares attention, stated interest, promotional signups, competitor financing, and sustained customer behavior.

Renewal, continued use, expansion, and paid referrals show that customers keep receiving value after the initial purchase. Check whether this pattern holds across representative cohorts.

A. Why this choice falls short

Establish attention or problem relevance.

B. Why this choice falls short

Establish attention or problem relevance.

C. Why this choice falls short

Raises a retention concern.

D. Why this choice falls short

Describes someone else’s financing. None supplies the same evidence of persistent demand.

Related Week 2 deck

Product-market fit

Hard (6/8)

W2-S012 · Source slide 12

Two teams sell the same type of monthly workflow software to comparable small businesses. Both have operated for nine months.

An investor wants to assess whether customers find enough value in the product to continue paying for it.

Which conclusion is best supported by the evidence?

EvidenceTeam NorthTeam South
Initial paying customers400 accounts at heavily discounted prices90 accounts at the intended price
Customers still paying after three monthly renewal opportunities6072
Other evidenceA 2,400-person waitlist and much larger social-media reachSustained product use and unsolicited referrals that brought in paying customers
  1. South shows stronger evidence that customers will keep paying, while North shows broader reach. Neither result establishes profitable growth across new customer groups or channels.
  2. North shows stronger evidence that customers will keep paying because its larger initial customer group offsets weaker retention. South mainly demonstrates interest among early enthusiasts.
  3. Both teams show similar evidence that customers will keep paying because similar numbers remain. Different starting customer counts and initial discounts do not affect comparability.
  4. South shows stronger demand and more efficient customer acquisition because customers renew at the intended price. North's broader reach provides weaker evidence of acquisition efficiency.
  5. North shows stronger evidence of scalable demand because its waitlist contains more prospective customers. South's renewals mainly confirm service delivery rather than willingness to pay.

Correct answer: A

South shows sustained paid behavior at its intended price, supported by usage and paying referrals. That is stronger evidence than a waitlist or subsidized acquisition. The conclusion is comparative and conditional, rather than a claim that South has proven profitable scalability.

B. Why this choice falls short

Larger initial acquisition does not offset weak retention when assessing durable paid demand. South shows actual payment and renewal, not just interest.

C. Why this choice falls short

The retained counts come from very different starting cohorts and price conditions: 60 of 400 versus 72 of 90. Those differences matter.

D. Why this choice falls short

South has stronger demand evidence, but the case gives no acquisition costs or channel efficiency. Paying the intended price does not establish efficient acquisition.

E. Why this choice falls short

A waitlist is interest. Renewing at the intended price directly informs willingness to pay, although it does not prove scalable acquisition economics.

Related Week 2 deck

Identifying the revenue model

Easy (0/8)

W2-S016 · Source slide 16

A platform acts as an agent connecting buyers and providers. It earns a percentage of completed booking value, and major transaction costs include payment processing and insurance. Which revenue-model archetype best fits?

  1. Product sales.
  2. Intellectual-property licensing.
  3. Advertising.
  4. Services delivered directly by the company.
  5. Marketplace / commission.

Correct answer: E

Case: The platform earns a fee for facilitating completed transactions between other parties.

Fee revenue equals completed booking value multiplied by the take rate in this agent example. Transaction costs then reduce that fee revenue.

A. Why this choice falls short

Product sales describe selling the company's own output. This platform earns a fee for transactions between buyers and other providers.

B. Why this choice falls short

Licensing earns revenue by granting rights to intellectual property. The stated charge is a percentage of completed bookings.

C. Why this choice falls short

Advertising sells access to an audience or promotional placement. No advertising payment is described.

D. Why this choice falls short

The providers deliver the underlying service. The platform acts as an intermediary and retains a commission.

Source notes

Simplified agent arrangement. Actual gross-versus-net revenue reporting depends on control and contract terms.

Related Week 2 deck

Revenue growth and cost structure

Easy (1/8)

W2-S021 · Source slide 21

A software company and a consulting firm each grow revenue 50%. Software supports much of the extra volume without proportional hiring; consulting adds professionals roughly with new client work. With comparable remaining cost behavior, which concept best explains the difference?

  1. Software has greater operating leverage because its fixed-cost base supports additional revenue before headcount must rise proportionally.
  2. Consulting has greater operating leverage because adding labor with client work keeps costs closely aligned with revenue.
  3. Software has stronger product–market fit because lower staffing requirements imply better customer retention.
  4. Consulting necessarily has stronger overall economics because variable labor reduces unused-capacity risk.
  5. Software has a network effect because revenue grows faster than headcount, even when other users do not change customer value.

Correct answer: A

Case: Both firms grow revenue 50%, but software uses more existing capacity while consulting adds delivery labor.

Fixed costs do not rise proportionally with revenue within the stated range. That makes additional sales contribute more toward operating profit. It also creates exposure when sales fall.

B. Why this choice falls short

Describes cost flexibility, not greater leverage.

C. Why this choice falls short

Infers customer behavior from staffing.

D. Why this choice falls short

Overstates one advantage of variable costs.

E. Why this choice falls short

Confuses cost scaling with participant-created value.

Related Week 2 deck

Operating leverage

Hard (6/8)

W2-S023 · Source slide 23

Atlas Software and Beacon Consulting each report quarterly revenue of $1.50 million, operating profit of $150,000, and cash of $800,000. Their cost structures differ:

CostAtlas SoftwareBeacon Consulting
Variable operating costs as a percentage of revenue20%60%
Fixed operating costs per quarter$1.05 million$450,000

Next quarter, revenue falls by 10% at both companies. Prices, sales mix, variable-cost percentages, and total fixed costs remain unchanged.

What operating profit will each company report, and which company's operating profit is more sensitive to the revenue decline?

  1. Atlas: $90,000; Beacon: $30,000; greater profit sensitivity: Beacon.
  2. Atlas: $120,000; Beacon: $60,000; greater profit sensitivity: Beacon.
  3. Atlas: $135,000; Beacon: $135,000; greater profit sensitivity: neither.
  4. Atlas: −$120,000; Beacon: −$60,000; greater profit sensitivity: Atlas.
  5. Atlas: $30,000; Beacon: $90,000; greater profit sensitivity: Atlas.

Correct answer: E

New revenue = $1.50m × 90% = $1.35m. Atlas profit = $1.35m × 80% − $1.05m = $30,000. Beacon profit = $1.35m × 40% − $450,000 = $90,000. Atlas's profit falls 80%, versus 40% at Beacon. The larger fixed-cost exposure makes Atlas more sensitive under the stated assumptions.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the results. Atlas has the higher contribution margin and larger fixed-cost commitment.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reports the dollar profit reductions as if they were the ending operating profits.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reduces profit by the 10% sales decline as though operating margins remained constant.

D. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the profit reductions from zero instead of from each company's starting $150,000 profit.

Related Week 2 deck

A founder’s pricing method

Medium (4/8)

W2-S026 · Source slide 26

A founder prices a differentiated product using fully loaded cost plus a 25% markup. The product solves an expensive customer problem, and customers may pay substantially more. Which pricing approach is being used, and what is its main limitation?

  1. Competition-based pricing; competitors’ price reductions may trigger a price war.
  2. Value-based pricing; uncertain customer benefits may lead to overstated willingness to pay.
  3. Penetration pricing; a low introductory reference price may be difficult to increase.
  4. Cost-plus pricing; ignoring willingness to pay may leave substantial value uncaptured.
  5. Freemium pricing; free users may never convert to a profitable paid tier.

Correct answer: D

Case: The founder starts with fully loaded cost and adds 25%, even though the customer’s benefit may support a higher price.

Cost and markup describe the seller’s target return. They do not measure the customer’s alternatives, switching costs, or willingness to buy.

A. Why this choice falls short

Competition-based pricing starts with competitors' prices. The founder explicitly starts with the firm's cost and adds a markup.

B. Why this choice falls short

Value-based pricing starts with customer benefits and alternatives. This founder's cost-plus rule does not measure willingness to pay.

C. Why this choice falls short

Requires an introductory-price strategy.

E. Why this choice falls short

Requires a free tier. Those features are absent from the stated pricing rule.

Related Week 2 deck

Pricing and contribution

Hard (6/8)

W2-S031 · Source slide 31

A company currently sells 1,000 units per month at $75 each. It set that price using a 25% markup on a fully loaded unit cost of $60, consisting of $42 in variable cost and $18 in allocated fixed overhead.

Management is comparing three pricing plans:

PlanPrice per unitExpected monthly sales
Current plan$751,000 units
Higher-price plan$90800 units
Lower-price plan$681,250 units

All three sales volumes are within existing capacity. Total fixed costs remain unchanged, and variable cost stays at $42 per unit. Customers report saving about $900 annually by using the product.

Using these sales estimates, which price produces the highest monthly contribution, and how much does contribution change from the current plan?

  1. Price: $68; change in monthly contribution: +$10,000.
  2. Price: $75; change in monthly contribution: $0.
  3. Price: $90; change in monthly contribution: −$3,000.
  4. Price: $90; change in monthly contribution: +$5,400.
  5. Price: $90; change in monthly contribution: +$9,000.

Correct answer: D

Current contribution = ($75 − $42) × 1,000 = $33,000. At $90: ($90 − $42) × 800 = $38,400. At $68: ($68 − $42) × 1,250 = $32,500. The $90 price produces the most contribution, $5,400 above the current plan. Unchanged total fixed costs cancel in the comparison.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses the increase in revenue, $85,000 − $75,000, rather than the change in contribution.

B. Why this choice falls short

The current plan produces $33,000, less than the $38,400 contribution at the $90 price.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses the revenue decline, $72,000 − $75,000, while ignoring the lower variable costs at lower volume.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats the allocated $18 fixed cost as variable: (90 − 60) × 800 − (75 − 60) × 1,000 = $9,000.

Related Week 2 deck

Gross margin and the customer relationship

Medium (4/8)

W2-S037 · Source slide 37

A startup has positive gross margin after delivery costs. Over the expected customer relationship, however, contribution becomes negative after all additional variable sales, marketing, onboarding, and customer-success costs. What does this indicate?

  1. The economics are attractive because acquisition and onboarding costs sit outside the relevant contribution analysis.
  2. Delivery economics are necessarily broken because variable sales and service costs should all be classified as product COGS.
  3. Fixed overhead must be causing the loss, rather than acquisition or customer-service costs.
  4. The problem is mainly cash timing because acquisition spending occurs before recurring customer payments.
  5. Delivery leaves gross profit, but variable acquisition and additional service costs make the full customer relationship unattractive.

Correct answer: E

Case: Delivery creates gross profit, but expected lifetime contribution becomes negative after additional variable acquisition and service costs.

The relationship fails to recover the stated costs even across its expected life. That is an economic shortfall, not merely an early cash outlay.

A. Why this choice falls short

Acquisition, onboarding, and additional customer service are included in the stated lifetime contribution analysis. Ignoring them hides the negative full-customer economics.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses accounting classification with cost behavior.

C. Why this choice falls short

Blames fixed overhead even though the loss occurs before it.

D. Why this choice falls short

Addresses timing rather than the negative lifetime total.

Related Week 2 deck

Gross margin and contribution

Hard (6/8)

W2-S039 · Source slide 39

An equipment-accessory startup completes 500 one-time customer orders during a month and charges $160 per order. Its records show the following costs:

Cost itemAmount
Variable cost of revenue$100 per order
Variable customer-acquisition spending$45 per order
Variable payment, onboarding, and service costs$20 per order
Fixed overhead$18,000 per month

The acquisition spending and the payment, onboarding, and service costs are additional to the $100 cost of revenue. All orders are collected in cash, and no repeat purchases are assumed.

What are the month's gross margin percentage and total contribution before fixed overhead?

  1. Gross margin: 37.5%; total contribution: −$2,500.
  2. Gross margin: 37.5%; total contribution: $20,000.
  3. Gross margin: 37.5%; total contribution: $30,000.
  4. Gross margin: 60.0%; total contribution: −$2,500.
  5. Gross margin: 37.5%; total contribution: −$20,500.

Correct answer: A

Gross profit per order = $160 − $100 = $60. Gross margin = $60 ÷ $160 = 37.5%. Contribution per order = $160 − $100 − $45 − $20 = −$5. Total contribution = 500 × −$5 = −$2,500. Operating profit would be −$20,500 after fixed overhead. More identical orders worsen contribution under these assumptions.

B. Why this choice falls short

Deducts cost of revenue and the $20 service costs but omits the $45 variable acquisition cost per order.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses gross profit as contribution and omits variable acquisition, payment, onboarding, and service costs.

D. Why this choice falls short

Divides gross profit by cost of revenue, $60 ÷ $100, producing a 60% markup rather than a margin on revenue.

E. Why this choice falls short

Deducts the $18,000 fixed overhead from contribution, producing operating profit instead.

Related Week 2 deck

Payback from revenue and gross margin

Medium (4/8)

W2-S042 · Source slide 42

An early-stage SaaS company spends $25,000 in complete acquisition costs to acquire 50 customers. Each generates $100 monthly revenue at 40% gross margin. Revenue and margin stay constant, and customers do not churn during recovery. What is gross-profit CAC payback?

  1. 5.0 months, because CAC is recovered using monthly revenue.
  2. 8.0 months, because gross margin reduces the acquisition cost to recover.
  3. 12.5 months, because CAC is $500 and monthly gross profit is $40 per customer.
  4. 20.0 months, because every customer must recover the entire acquisition campaign.
  5. 25.0 months, because acquisition cost is deducted from monthly revenue first.

Correct answer: C

Case: Acquisition costs $25,000 for 50 customers. Each earns $100 monthly revenue at 40% gross margin.

CAC = $500. Monthly gross profit = $100 × 40% = $40. Payback = $500 ÷ $40 = 12.5 months.

A. Why this choice falls short

Includes revenue needed to deliver the service.

B. Why this choice falls short

Adjusts the wrong input.

D. Why this choice falls short

Mixes campaign and customer units.

E. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts a one-time investment from a monthly flow.

Related Week 2 deck

CAC payback

Medium (4/8)

W2-S044 · Source slide 44

A SaaS company spends $78,000 on sales and marketing during a quarter. Its records separate that spending into two activities:

Acquiring new customers: $60,000 to acquire 100 new paying customers.

Renewing existing customers: $18,000 to renew the 400 paying customers it had at the start of the quarter. All 400 remain customers.

Each new customer generates $125 of monthly recurring revenue at a 64% gross margin. There are no other acquisition costs.

Assume no churn, expansion, discounting, or collection delays. Use only the acquisition costs attributable to the new customers.

How many months of gross profit from a new customer are needed to recover that customer's acquisition cost?

  1. 1.50 months.
  2. 4.80 months.
  3. 5.25 months.
  4. 7.50 months.
  5. 9.75 months.

Correct answer: D

Cohort CAC = $60,000 ÷ 100 = $600. Monthly gross profit per new customer = $125 × 64% = $80. Payback = $600 ÷ $80 = 7.50 months. Spending attribution and the customer denominator must refer to the same acquired cohort.

A. Why this choice falls short

Divides $60,000 by all 500 ending customers instead of the 100 acquired customers, giving $120 CAC.

B. Why this choice falls short

Divides the correct $600 CAC by $125 revenue rather than $80 monthly gross profit.

C. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the $18,000 renewal cost twice, using $42,000 rather than $60,000 of acquisition spending.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses all $78,000, including $18,000 explicitly attributed to renewals: $780 ÷ $80 = 9.75.

Related Week 2 deck

Customer churn with new signups

Medium (3/8)

W2-S047 · Source slide 47

A subscription business begins the month with 200 customers. Ten of those starting customers cancel. Thirty new customers join and remain active. What is monthly customer churn?

  1. 5%.
  2. 10%.
  3. 15%.
  4. 20%.
  5. 90%.

Correct answer: A

Case: Ten customers leave a starting cohort of 200, while thirty new customers join.

Churn = 10 ÷ 200 = 5%. Ending customers increase to 220, but acquisition does not erase departures from the original cohort.

B. Why this choice falls short

Measures net customer growth.

C. Why this choice falls short

Measures new signups relative to starting customers.

D. Why this choice falls short

Do not measure the stated loss rate. Keep acquisition and retention measures separate.

E. Why this choice falls short

Do not measure the stated loss rate. Keep acquisition and retention measures separate.

Related Week 2 deck

Revenue from the starting cohort

Medium (3/8)

W2-S050 · Source slide 50

A company begins the month with $100,000 monthly recurring revenue (MRR). Existing customers add $15,000 through expansion, lose $5,000 through downgrades, and lose $20,000 through cancellations. New customers add $30,000 MRR. With no other changes, what is net revenue retention (NRR)?

  1. 75%.
  2. 90%.
  3. 95%.
  4. 110%.
  5. 120%.

Correct answer: B

Case: Starting MRR is $100,000. Expansion adds $15,000, downgrades remove $5,000, cancellations remove $20,000, and new customers add $30,000.

NRR = ($100,000 + $15,000 − $5,000 − $20,000) ÷ $100,000 = 90%. Only the starting cohort belongs in this calculation.

A. Why this choice falls short

75% subtracts downgrades and cancellations but omits the $15,000 expansion from the same starting cohort.

C. Why this choice falls short

95% does not reconcile all three starting-cohort changes. Expansion of $15,000 less $5,000 downgrades and $20,000 churn yields $90,000, or 90%.

D. Why this choice falls short

110% overstates retention. The starting cohort loses $10,000 net; new-customer revenue is excluded from NRR.

E. Why this choice falls short

Includes new customers and measures ending company MRR relative to starting MRR.

Related Week 2 deck

Estimating gross-profit LTV

Easy (2/8)

W2-S053 · Source slide 53

A SaaS customer pays $120 monthly. Gross margin is 75%, and monthly customer churn is a constant 3%. Assume stable revenue and margin, no expansion, and no discounting. Using the simple gross-profit LTV approximation, what is estimated LTV?

  1. $1,200.
  2. $3,000.
  3. $3,600.
  4. $4,000.
  5. $4,800.

Correct answer: B

Case: Monthly revenue is $120, gross margin is 75%, and monthly churn is 3%.

Monthly gross profit = $90. LTV ≈ $90 ÷ 0.03 = $3,000, corresponding to an expected lifetime of about 33.3 months under the constant-churn model.

A. Why this choice falls short

Do not follow the supplied inputs. Acquisition, onboarding outside gross profit, overhead, and financing needs still matter.

C. Why this choice falls short

Do not follow the supplied inputs. Acquisition, onboarding outside gross profit, overhead, and financing needs still matter.

D. Why this choice falls short

Uses revenue instead of gross profit.

E. Why this choice falls short

Do not follow the supplied inputs. Acquisition, onboarding outside gross profit, overhead, and financing needs still matter.

Related Week 2 deck

LTV and churn

Medium (4/8)

W2-S056 · Source slide 56

A subscription business is testing how higher churn would affect the value of a customer. The following inputs remain the same in both scenarios:

Monthly revenue per customer: $180.

Gross margin: 70%.

Customer acquisition cost (CAC): $900.

The base case assumes constant monthly customer churn of 3.5%. The downside case increases that rate to 5.25%. Management still expects strong growth in new customers, but that growth does not change the retention or spending of the customer being valued.

Use the gross-profit lifetime value (LTV) approximation. Assume no expansion, reactivation, discounting, or other customer cash flows.

What are LTV and LTV/CAC in the downside case? Round LTV to the nearest dollar and the ratio to two decimal places.

  1. LTV of $1,500 and LTV/CAC of 1.67×.
  2. LTV of $1,800 and LTV/CAC of 2.00×.
  3. LTV of $2,400 and LTV/CAC of 2.67×.
  4. LTV of $3,429 and LTV/CAC of 3.81×.
  5. LTV of $3,600 and LTV/CAC of 4.00×.

Correct answer: C

Monthly gross profit = $180 × 70% = $126. Downside LTV = $126 ÷ 0.0525 = $2,400. LTV/CAC = $2,400 ÷ $900 = 2.6667×, or 2.67×. Higher churn reduces estimated lifetime value even if total company revenue grows through new acquisitions.

A. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the $900 CAC inside LTV even though the requested measure is lifetime gross profit before acquisition cost.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats the 50% increase in churn as a 50% fall in LTV: $3,600 × 50% = $1,800. With inverse proportionality, divide base LTV by 1.5, giving $2,400.

D. Why this choice falls short

Divides $180 revenue by churn without applying the 70% gross margin.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses the 3.5% base-case churn instead of the specified 5.25% downside churn.

Related Week 2 deck

Sizing a construction-software opportunity

Medium (4/8)

W2-S060 · Source slide 60

A founder presents $12 trillion of global construction activity as the market for specialized software sold only to large U.S. commercial contractors. What is the main analytical correction?

  1. Keep global construction spending as software TAM because the product could influence activity throughout the industry.
  2. Use only the current prospect pipeline as total market size because unidentified buyers should not count.
  3. Multiply eligible contractors by software spending and treat the entire amount as obtainable revenue without testing reach or sales capacity.
  4. Define eligible buyers, relevant geography, and annual software spending, then distinguish total, serviceable, and obtainable opportunity.
  5. Replace market sizing with unit economics because positive contribution makes market scale unimportant.

Correct answer: D

Case: The pitch uses global construction activity to size software sold to large U.S. commercial contractors.

Construction project spending is a different revenue pool from software purchases. Eligible buyers × realistic annual software spending defines the relevant opportunity; access and acquisition capacity narrow it further.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses the wrong spending pool.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses pipeline with total demand.

C. Why this choice falls short

Skips serviceability and execution.

E. Why this choice falls short

Ignores whether the accessible market supports the venture’s objectives.

Source notes

Hypothetical pitch. The $12 trillion figure is the founder’s assertion, not a verified industry statistic. TAM definitions depend on the product and scope.

Related Week 2 deck

TAM, SAM, and SOM

Hard (7/8)

W2-S062 · Source slide 62

A software company is estimating its market opportunity and the revenue scale it could reach over the next 12 months. It has the following information:

InputEstimate
Eligible U.S. contractors in the total addressable market18,000
Annual subscription price per contractor$6,000
Share of eligible contractors the current product can serve30%
Qualified sales opportunities within that serviceable market600
Expected win rate on those opportunities30%
Maximum number of new customers the team can onboard120

The company has no existing customers, expects no churn, and faces no other constraints. Its pitch also cites $600 billion of annual construction activity.

For this question, measure SOM as year-end annual recurring revenue (ARR) from customers actually onboarded, not revenue recognized during the year.

Which combination of TAM, SAM, and SOM follows from these assumptions?

  1. TAM: $108.0 million; SAM: $32.4 million; SOM: $0.36 million of year-end ARR.
  2. TAM: $108.0 million; SAM: $32.4 million; SOM: $0.72 million of year-end ARR.
  3. TAM: $108.0 million; SAM: $32.4 million; SOM: $1.08 million of year-end ARR.
  4. TAM: $108.0 million; SAM: $32.4 million; SOM: $3.24 million of year-end ARR.
  5. TAM: $108.0 million; SAM: $108.0 million; SOM: $0.72 million of year-end ARR.

Correct answer: B

TAM = 18,000 × $6,000 = $108m. SAM = $108m × 30% = $32.4m. Expected sales wins = 600 × 30% = 180, but only min(180, 120) = 120 customers can be onboarded. Modeled year-end ARR = 120 × $6,000 = $720,000. These are conditional planning estimates, not guaranteed outcomes.

A. Why this choice falls short

Halves the annual recurring amount as if estimating partial-year recognized revenue. The requested measure is year-end ARR.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses 600 × 30% = 180 wins without applying the 120-customer onboarding constraint.

D. Why this choice falls short

Applies an unsupported 10% share of SAM and ignores the operating capacity constraint.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats all eligible contractors as currently serviceable despite the stated 30% product-coverage limit.

Related Week 2 deck

From strategy to a forecast

Hard (6/8)

W2-S069 · Source slide 69

A software startup claims a durable advantage because it uses the same commercial AI model as its rivals. One data supplier can raise prices at renewal, and customer interviews suggest demand for a simpler workflow. Which next step best connects the strategy frameworks to financial assumptions?

  1. Model supplier pricing power, test whether capabilities are hard to copy, and validate willingness to pay.
  2. Model supplier costs as fixed, treat the shared model as rare, and project an immediate price premium.
  3. Model market growth as demand, use the shared model as a moat, and hold acquisition costs constant.
  4. Model a permanent premium, treat workflow interest as payment, and exclude rival responses from risk.
  5. Model only cloud cost savings, treat scale as exclusivity, and use interview counts as contracted sales.

Correct answer: A

Porter directs attention to supplier power. VRIO asks whether a valuable capability is also rare, difficult to imitate, and supported by the organization. Blue Ocean thinking proposes a different value offering; customers still must validate it.

B. Why this choice falls short

Assumes rarity and fixed costs without support.

C. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes market growth for company demand.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats interest as a paid commitment.

E. Why this choice falls short

Confuses lower cost with an exclusive advantage.

Related Week 2 deck

Providers and customer value

Easy (1/8)

W2-S073 · Source slide 73

A digital platform connects customers with independent service providers. More providers bring greater selection, shorter wait times, and better availability. Customer value rises even though the number of customers stays unchanged. Which mechanism explains this?

  1. Direct network effect: customers benefit primarily from more customers joining.
  2. Economies of scale: average operating cost falls as transaction volume increases.
  3. Cross-side network effect: growth on the provider side improves value for customers.
  4. Switching costs: customers become more reluctant to move to another platform.
  5. Economies of scope: several services share production resources.

Correct answer: C

Case: Additional providers improve selection and availability for the customer side, while customer count remains unchanged.

Participation on one side changes the benefit received by the other side. The mechanism concerns customer value, not simply the platform’s cost per transaction.

A. Why this choice falls short

Names the wrong participant group.

B. Why this choice falls short

Concerns internal cost efficiency.

D. Why this choice falls short

Concerns leaving the platform.

E. Why this choice falls short

Concerns shared production. Each is distinct from the stated provider-to-customer benefit.

Related Week 2 deck

Network effects

Hard (6/8)

W2-S075 · Source slide 75

A marketplace runs three tests while keeping prices, promotions, and advertising intensity unchanged:

In comparable neighborhoods, adding qualified sellers raises buyers' order-completion rate from 62% to 80%.

In a separate test, adding active buyers increases sellers' utilization and willingness to stay on the platform.

In another test, moving to a different cloud system reduces processing cost per transaction. The numbers of buyers, sellers, and completed orders do not change.

The marketplace continues to subsidize delivery.

Which conclusion correctly identifies what these results show about network effects, cost efficiency, and contribution?

  1. More participants improve value across the marketplace's two sides; the cloud change improves processing efficiency. Together, these improvements establish positive contribution after subsidized delivery costs.
  2. More participants improve value within the marketplace's individual sides; the cloud change improves processing efficiency. Contribution still depends on delivery subsidies and other variable costs.
  3. More participants improve value across the marketplace's two sides; the cloud change improves processing efficiency. Lower processing costs establish that marginal delivery costs also decline.
  4. More participants improve processing efficiency; the cloud change improves value across the marketplace's two sides. Contribution still depends on delivery subsidies and other variable costs.
  5. More participants improve value across the marketplace's two sides; the cloud change improves processing efficiency. Contribution still depends on delivery subsidies and other variable costs.

Correct answer: E

More sellers improve buyer outcomes, and more buyers improve seller outcomes. Those are cross-side value effects. A cheaper cloud stack reduces costs without the same participant mechanism. Delivery subsidies still must be incorporated when judging contribution and cash needs.

A. Why this choice falls short

Better participant outcomes and lower processing costs do not show that revenue exceeds all variable costs, including delivery subsidies.

B. Why this choice falls short

The benefits cross platform sides: more sellers help buyers, and more buyers help sellers. A same-side effect concerns participants on the same side.

C. Why this choice falls short

Processing and delivery are different costs. A cloud migration does not establish how marginal delivery costs change with volume.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the mechanisms. Participant growth improves the other side’s outcomes; the cloud change reduces costs without changing participation.

Related Week 2 deck

Current cash runway

Easy (2/8)

W2-S079 · Source slide 79

A startup has $900,000 usable cash, $180,000 monthly operating cash outflows, and $105,000 monthly operating cash inflows. Both flows remain constant, with no financing or other cash flows. What is current runway?

  1. 12 months.
  2. 8.6 months.
  3. 7.5 months.
  4. 5 months.
  5. 15 months.

Correct answer: A

Case: Cash is $900,000. Monthly outflows of $180,000 exceed inflows of $105,000.

Net burn = $75,000 per month. Runway = $900,000 ÷ $75,000 = 12 months under the constant-flow assumptions.

B. Why this choice falls short

Dividing $900,000 by $105,000 uses monthly receipts rather than net burn. Net burn is $180,000 − $105,000 = $75,000.

C. Why this choice falls short

Do not use the stated net burn. Hiring, collection delays, or capital spending would require a revised cash projection.

D. Why this choice falls short

Five months divides cash by gross outflows of $180,000, ignoring the $105,000 of continuing monthly inflows.

E. Why this choice falls short

Do not use the stated net burn. Hiring, collection delays, or capital spending would require a revised cash projection.

Related Week 2 deck

Growth, commitments, and runway

Easy (1/8)

W2-S083 · Source slide 83

A startup raises capital, hires aggressively, and signs a long office lease. Six months later, growth is below plan, cash will run out before profitability, and committed costs cannot fall quickly. Which course concept best describes the situation?

  1. Default alive, because a previous capital raise establishes access to future financing.
  2. Product–market fit, because management was confident enough to hire ahead of profitability.
  3. Operating leverage, because committed fixed costs automatically improve margins as time passes.
  4. The fatal pinch: slow growth and short runway leave little time to respond, while locked-in costs limit flexibility.
  5. Affordable loss, because using investor money establishes that the expansion’s downside was tolerable.

Correct answer: D

Case: Growth disappoints, cash runs out before profitability, and hiring and lease commitments make a quick cost adjustment difficult.

The venture is on a default-dead path with limited time to improve growth or reduce spending. Fixed commitments worsen the response constraint.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assumes another financing round.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats spending as customer evidence.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores insufficient sales.

E. Why this choice falls short

Requires a deliberate tolerable-loss limit, not merely outside funding.

Related Week 2 deck

Default dead and the fatal pinch

Medium (4/8)

W2-S085 · Source slide 85

A startup raised capital eight months ago. Its current plan shows the following:

Existing cash will cover five more months of operations.

With expenses held constant and recent revenue growth continuing, the company will reach profitability 14 months from now.

Growth has slowed, and most payroll and lease commitments cannot be reduced quickly.

An investor has requested a presentation but has not committed any money. The founder argues that the previous financing round and the investor's interest make the company default alive.

Which assessment best describes the company's position and the implication for its financing plan?

  1. Default dead: cash runs out before projected profitability. Slower growth and fixed commitments increase fatal-pinch risk, so planning must allow for the raise to fail.
  2. Default alive: the prior financing shows that external capital supports the operating plan. Current investor interest justifies including another round when calculating the remaining runway.
  3. Default dead: current costs exhaust cash too soon. The forecast should recognize lower spending when management announces reductions, even if payroll and lease commitments remain.
  4. Default dead: the forecast shows a temporary cash gap. Management should retain current commitments and include the prospective round because the investor has requested information.
  5. Default alive: projected revenue eventually covers expenses. The gap before profitability is a financing issue that should be assessed separately from the company's default-alive classification.

Correct answer: A

The current path uses up cash before profitability, making the company default dead under the stated assumptions. Slow growth and limited time to respond create fatal-pinch risk, which locked-in commitments intensify. A request for a presentation is not committed cash, and the forecast is not an inevitable outcome.

B. Why this choice falls short

Past financing and a presentation request do not establish another raise. Default alive requires reaching profitability before cash runs out under the stated trajectory.

C. Why this choice falls short

Announcing cuts does not release committed cash. Cash savings must reflect feasible timing, including payroll and lease obligations.

D. Why this choice falls short

Investor engagement is not committed financing. The plan must address a downside in which the prospective round does not arrive.

E. Why this choice falls short

The timing of profitability relative to cash exhaustion is part of the classification, not a separate issue that can be ignored.

Related Week 2 deck

Burn multiple and cash needs

Medium (3/8)

W2-S088 · Source slide 88

During one quarter, a SaaS venture consumes $900,000 of net cash under a consistently defined burn measure. ARR rises from $2.4 million to $3.0 million. Recognized revenue is $720,000, and a financing round adds $2 million of cash. What is the quarter’s burn multiple and the strongest interpretation?

  1. 0.30×; each dollar of ending ARR required thirty cents of quarterly net burn.
  2. 1.25×; each dollar of recognized revenue required $1.25 of quarterly net burn.
  3. 3.33×; each dollar of added ARR required $3.33 of financing proceeds.
  4. 1.50×; each dollar of net new ARR required $1.50 of quarterly net burn.
  5. 6.00×; each dollar of quarterly revenue growth required six dollars of net burn.

Correct answer: D

Calculation: Net new ARR = $3.0m − $2.4m = $0.6m. Burn multiple = $0.9m / $0.6m = 1.50×. Use burn and the ARR change over the same quarter.

A. Why this choice falls short

The burn multiple uses the change in ARR during the period, not ending ARR. $900,000 / $600,000 = 1.50×.

B. Why this choice falls short

Recognized revenue is a different measure. Burn multiple divides net burn by net new ARR, both tied to the same quarter.

C. Why this choice falls short

Financing receipts add cash but do not measure cash consumed by operations under the given burn definition.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides the ARR change by four, changing the metric.

Related Week 2 deck

Founder capability and opportunity economics

Easy (0/8)

W2-S092 · Source slide 92

Why does the Venture Economics Framework assess the opportunity separately from the founder?

  1. Founder quality stops mattering when the market is large.
  2. Even a strong founder needs evidence that demand, unit economics, and cash can support the opportunity.
  3. Investors evaluate businesses and never consider founders.
  4. The Founder Archetype Matrix already establishes that the opportunity is sound.
  5. Opportunity assessment removes the need for financial modeling.

Correct answer: B

Case: A founder can have relevant skills and experience while the proposed business still has unproven demand or unsustainable economics.

A capable founder may improve the model, but their profile does not demonstrate that the current price, costs, market, or cash plan works.

A. Why this choice falls short

Dismiss founder capability.

C. Why this choice falls short

Dismiss founder capability.

D. Why this choice falls short

Asks the Week 1 framework to establish something it does not measure.

E. Why this choice falls short

Removes the financial analysis needed to quantify the opportunity.

Related Week 2 deck

Problem–solution fit and product–market fit

Easy (0/8)

W2-S096 · Source slide 96

What distinguishes problem–solution fit from product–market fit?

  1. Problem–solution fit supports a meaningful problem and a workable solution; product–market fit adds sustained demand for the specific product.
  2. The terms describe the same stage and are interchangeable.
  3. Product–market fit must be established before understanding the customer’s problem.
  4. Problem–solution fit requires net revenue retention above 120%.
  5. A landing-page signup establishes product–market fit.

Correct answer: A

Case: The distinction concerns evidence about the customer’s problem and solution versus evidence of continuing adoption of a specific product.

A product can address an important problem without yet having repeat customers. Paid adoption and continued use strengthen the market-fit claim.

B. Why this choice falls short

The terms make different claims: a meaningful problem with a workable solution versus sustained demand for the specific product.

C. Why this choice falls short

Understanding the problem and testing a solution ordinarily precede claiming durable product demand. Product-market fit is not a prerequisite for discovery.

D. Why this choice falls short

Invents a universal threshold.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats a statement of interest as continuing demand.

Related Week 2 deck

Evidence from interviews and a waitlist

Easy (1/8)

W2-S098 · Source slide 98

Practice convention

The course evidence ladder progresses from assumptions to discovery, expressed interest, paid pilots, repeat purchase, and stronger evidence of customer economics. Judge the highest level actually demonstrated.

A founder has completed 30 discovery interviews and built a 400-person waitlist, but no one has paid. What is the highest demonstrated level on the course evidence ladder?

  1. Level 5: Repeat purchase is demonstrated.
  2. Level 1: The founder has assumptions only.
  3. Level 4: A paid pilot has demonstrated willingness to pay.
  4. Level 3: Customers have expressed interest, but payment is unproven.
  5. Level 7: Positive unit economics have been demonstrated.

Correct answer: D

Case: Thirty interviews and 400 waitlist signups provide discovery and stated-interest evidence. No purchase has occurred.

The observations support the problem and initial interest. A paid pilot or purchase would test willingness to pay at a stated price.

A. Why this choice falls short

No purchase, much less a repeat purchase, has occurred. A waitlist cannot demonstrate repeat buying.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the discovery already completed.

C. Why this choice falls short

A paid pilot requires an actual payment. The facts state that nobody has paid.

E. Why this choice falls short

Requires cost and revenue evidence beyond signups.

Source notes

The numbered evidence ladder is a course heuristic, not an investment-readiness certification.

Related Week 2 deck

Customer traction versus market interest

Easy (1/8)

W2-S100 · Source slide 100

An early-stage software company is trying to determine whether it has customer traction rather than simply market interest. Which evidence provides the strongest support?

  1. Eight large companies sign nonbinding letters of intent, but none purchases the product.
  2. Three customers complete paid pilots, but none chooses to continue afterward.
  3. Twelve customers pay for the product, nine have renewed, and four have expanded their purchases.
  4. Website traffic increases 50% after favorable media coverage, but few visitors become paying customers.
  5. Thirty prospects say in interviews that they would probably purchase at the proposed price.

Correct answer: C

Case: Twelve customers have paid, nine have renewed, and four have expanded. The number eligible to renew is not given.

Customers demonstrate continuing value through purchases, rather than statements of intent alone. The evidence is promising but still comes from a small group.

A. Why this choice falls short

Describe intent.

B. Why this choice falls short

Proves initial payment but weak continuation. Do not infer a renewal percentage without the eligible-customer denominator.

D. Why this choice falls short

Measures attention.

E. Why this choice falls short

Describe intent.

Related Week 2 deck

What unpaid demand establishes

Medium (4/8)

W2-S102 · Source slide 102

A startup completes 40 customer interviews and collects 600 waitlist signups. Target customers consistently describe the problem as important, but none has paid. Which conclusion is best supported?

  1. The large number of interested prospects establishes product–market fit for an early-stage company.
  2. Problem relevance and customer interest have support, while willingness to pay and repeat demand remain unproven.
  3. Joining the waitlist establishes willingness to pay because it is a meaningful commitment.
  4. The waitlist establishes repeatable demand if it exceeds the first-year paying-customer forecast.
  5. Unpaid demand establishes viable unit economics because it should reduce future acquisition costs.

Correct answer: B

Case: Forty interviews and 600 signups indicate interest, but the startup has no paying customers.

A forecast must still test conversion at an actual price, continued use, and the cost of acquiring and serving buyers.

A. Why this choice falls short

Infer continuing demand from a count of prospects.

C. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes a signup for payment.

D. Why this choice falls short

Infer continuing demand from a count of prospects.

E. Why this choice falls short

Assumes future acquisition costs and margins that have not been measured.

Related Week 2 deck

Scaling software and consulting

Easy (1/8)

W2-S104 · Source slide 104

In this case, a SaaS firm can double revenue using existing capacity with modest incremental staffing. A consulting firm adds delivery professionals roughly in proportion to client work. What explains the difference?

  1. SaaS necessarily operates at a lower gross margin.
  2. Consulting firms have no fixed costs.
  3. The software firm can spread its fixed-cost base across additional revenue.
  4. Consulting revenue is recurring, while software revenue cannot be recurring.
  5. SaaS businesses never require capital investment.

Correct answer: C

Case: Software can serve more demand within its current capacity; consulting adds delivery labor with each increment of client work.

The software model has greater operating leverage under these cost assumptions. Extra contribution can cover fixed costs and then increase operating profit.

A. Why this choice falls short

The question concerns how operating costs change with volume; it does not establish that SaaS has a lower gross margin.

B. Why this choice falls short

Consulting firms can have fixed costs. The distinction here is that delivery labor also rises with client work.

D. Why this choice falls short

Software can earn recurring subscription revenue, and consulting can use recurring retainers. Billing recurrence does not explain this cost pattern.

E. Why this choice falls short

Software businesses may require substantial investment. The case only says existing capacity can support more revenue with modest additional staffing.

Related Week 2 deck

The cost-based pricing rule

Easy (0/8)

W2-S106 · Source slide 106

A founder starts with fully loaded cost and adds an amount to achieve a target margin. Which pricing approach is this, and what is its main risk?

  1. Value-based pricing; communicating the customer benefit may be difficult.
  2. Cost-plus pricing; customer willingness to pay may be ignored.
  3. Competition-based pricing; matching rivals may trigger a price war.
  4. Freemium pricing; a generous free tier may weaken paid conversion.
  5. Penetration pricing; premium customer segments may be overlooked.

Correct answer: B

Case: The founder calculates a price from cost and a chosen return target.

The rule remains cost-based whether the return is expressed as markup on cost or margin on revenue. Neither approach establishes what customers will pay.

A. Why this choice falls short

Start with different information.

C. Why this choice falls short

Start with different information.

D. Why this choice falls short

Needs a free tier.

E. Why this choice falls short

Needs an intentional low-price entry strategy. The cost-based price can be either too high or too low relative to demand.

Related Week 2 deck

Monthly operating cash break-even

Easy (2/8)

W2-S108 · Source slide 108

A venture sells for $65 per unit, incurs $25 variable cash cost per unit, and pays $24,000 fixed monthly cash operating costs. Sales are collected and costs paid that month. With no other cash flows, how many units cover the monthly operating cash costs?

  1. 369 units.
  2. 480 units.
  3. 600 units.
  4. 800 units.
  5. 960 units.

Correct answer: C

Case: Price is $65, variable cash cost is $25 per unit, and fixed monthly operating cash costs are $24,000.

Contribution is $40 per unit. Break-even volume = $24,000 ÷ $40 = 600. Receipts of $39,000 cover $15,000 variable costs plus $24,000 fixed costs.

A. Why this choice falls short

Divides by price rather than contribution.

B. Why this choice falls short

Leaves a shortfall.

D. Why this choice falls short

Exceeds the minimum. Other cash obligations would require a broader forecast.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides by variable cost.

Related Week 2 deck

A price increase with fewer customers

Medium (4/8)

W2-S110 · Source slide 110

Customers pay $50 per month for a product serving 5,000 customers. Variable cost is $30 per customer, and fixed monthly costs are $100,000. Price rises 20% to $60 and customer count falls 10%. With unit variable cost and fixed costs unchanged, what is monthly operating profit?

  1. Profit falls because losing customers always reduces profit.
  2. Profit stays at zero, the original break-even level.
  3. The business records an $8,000 operating loss.
  4. Operating profit rises to $35,000 per month.
  5. Profit cannot be estimated without a separate churn rate.

Correct answer: D

Case: After repricing, 4,500 customers each pay $60, incur $30 variable cost, and share $100,000 fixed monthly costs.

Contribution = 4,500 × ($60 − $30) = $135,000. Subtract fixed costs to get $35,000. The contribution per customer rises enough to outweigh the lower count.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the higher unit contribution.

B. Why this choice falls short

Do not follow the stated costs.

C. Why this choice falls short

Do not follow the stated costs.

E. Why this choice falls short

Is unnecessary because the post-change customer count is provided.

Source notes

The constant $30 unit variable cost is essential. Holding the old 40% contribution margin constant instead would produce a different answer.

Related Week 2 deck

A $900 annual contract

Medium (4/8)

W2-S112 · Source slide 112

A product has a $900 annual contract value, with no unusual expansion opportunity. Which go-to-market motion is the strongest initial candidate to test on economic grounds?

  1. Self-serve adoption, product-led growth, and efficient paid acquisition.
  2. Field enterprise sales with lengthy procurement cycles for each account.
  3. Outbound representatives who spend substantial time personally closing each deal.
  4. Six-month pilots with custom implementation for each customer.
  5. A dedicated customer-success manager assigned to every account.

Correct answer: A

Case: The contract provides $900 annual revenue per customer, and the case supplies no unusually large expansion opportunity.

Delivery costs consume part of that revenue before acquisition and service effort can be recovered. A low-touch model is the most plausible starting point among the alternatives.

B. Why this choice falls short

Add substantial per-account effort. They would need higher prices, strong retention or expansion, or a much more efficient cost structure. ACV alone does not prove any channel is viable.

C. Why this choice falls short

Add substantial per-account effort. They would need higher prices, strong retention or expansion, or a much more efficient cost structure. ACV alone does not prove any channel is viable.

D. Why this choice falls short

Add substantial per-account effort. They would need higher prices, strong retention or expansion, or a much more efficient cost structure. ACV alone does not prove any channel is viable.

E. Why this choice falls short

Add substantial per-account effort. They would need higher prices, strong retention or expansion, or a much more efficient cost structure. ACV alone does not prove any channel is viable.

Related Week 2 deck

Gross-profit CAC payback

Easy (2/8)

W2-S114 · Source slide 114

A startup spends $48,000 in complete sales and marketing acquisition costs to acquire 80 new customers. Each customer produces $60 monthly gross profit. Ignoring churn, expansion, discounting, and other cash flows, what is gross-profit CAC payback?

  1. 6 months.
  2. 8 months.
  3. 10 months.
  4. 12 months.
  5. 15 months.

Correct answer: C

Case: The cohort costs $48,000 to acquire, contains 80 customers, and earns $60 monthly gross profit per customer.

CAC = $48,000 ÷ 80 = $600. Payback = $600 ÷ $60 = 10 months. Both numerator and denominator are measured per customer.

A. Why this choice falls short

Six months generates $360 of gross profit per customer, below the $600 acquisition cost.

B. Why this choice falls short

Eight months generates $480 of gross profit per customer, so $120 of CAC remains unrecovered.

D. Why this choice falls short

At twelve months the customer has generated $720 of gross profit. The $600 acquisition cost was recovered at month ten.

E. Why this choice falls short

Fifteen months generates $900 of gross profit. Payback occurs earlier, once cumulative gross profit reaches $600.

Related Week 2 deck

The effect of higher churn

Medium (4/8)

W2-S116 · Source slide 116

Two SaaS firms have $200 monthly revenue per customer, 80% gross margin, and $2,000 CAC. Their only difference is constant monthly churn: 2.8% versus 6%. Under the simple LTV model, what is the main effect of higher churn?

  1. Simple CAC payback automatically lengthens to 24 months.
  2. Gross margin falls to 40%.
  3. Expected lifetime roughly halves, and LTV:CAC falls from about 2.9:1 to 1.3:1.
  4. Nothing material changes because price and CAC stay unchanged.
  5. The higher-churn firm becomes default alive.

Correct answer: C

Case: Both firms earn $160 monthly gross profit and spend $2,000 per acquired customer. Only churn changes.

$160 ÷ 2.8% ≈ $5,714 LTV; $160 ÷ 6% ≈ $2,667. Dividing by CAC gives 2.86:1 versus 1.33:1. Expected lifetime falls from 35.7 to 16.7 months.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assigns churn to a simple payback formula that omits it.

B. Why this choice falls short

Changes a fixed input.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores retention.

E. Why this choice falls short

Cannot be concluded from customer economics alone.

Related Week 2 deck

Positive CM1 and negative CM2

Easy (1/8)

W2-S118 · Source slide 118

For a one-time purchase, CM1 subtracts variable delivery and service costs from revenue. CM2 also subtracts variable selling and acquisition costs. A business has positive CM1 but negative CM2. What does this mean?

  1. Delivery loses money, but customer acquisition is economically sound.
  2. The company is already profitable.
  3. Accounting gross margin must be negative.
  4. Churn is necessarily the only problem.
  5. Delivery contributes positively, but variable selling and acquisition costs consume more than that contribution.

Correct answer: E

Case: The defined contribution is positive after delivery and service, then negative after variable selling and acquisition.

For example, $100 revenue − $50 delivery gives $50 CM1; another $55 acquisition cost produces −$5 CM2. Additional orders with these economics do not fund fixed overhead.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the result.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores both negative contribution and overhead.

C. Why this choice falls short

Equates contribution definitions with accounting gross margin.

D. Why this choice falls short

Supplies an unsupported cause.

Source notes

CM1 and CM2 are course conventions. Subscription acquisition must be assessed across the expected customer relationship, not one month alone.

Related Week 2 deck

A broad industry figure in a software pitch

Easy (1/8)

W2-S120 · Source slide 120

A founder cites $12 trillion of global construction activity as the opportunity for construction software, without identifying buyers or software budgets. What is the main credibility problem?

  1. The pitch substitutes broad industry activity for spending on the defined software product.
  2. Software SOM must always exceed TAM.
  3. The number must understate the software opportunity.
  4. Investors should always receive the largest available market figure.
  5. Market size becomes irrelevant once unit economics are positive.

Correct answer: A

Case: The $12 trillion figure measures asserted construction activity, while the proposed business sells software.

Identify eligible purchasing accounts and realistic annual software spending. Then estimate the portion the offering can serve and the customers it can plausibly win.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the market subsets.

C. Why this choice falls short

Makes an unsupported size claim.

D. Why this choice falls short

Favors a large number over a defensible definition.

E. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the scale of attainable demand.

Source notes

Hypothetical pitch. Broad industry spending is not automatically the product’s TAM.

Related Week 2 deck

Evidence for a marketplace network effect

Easy (1/8)

W2-S122 · Source slide 122

A two-sided marketplace argues that it has a cross-side network effect. Which evidence most directly supports that claim?

  1. Higher transaction volume lowers infrastructure cost per transaction as fixed technology costs are spread more widely.
  2. Brand awareness lowers paid acquisition costs for both buyers and sellers.
  3. More transaction history improves internal processing algorithms, reducing processing time and operating expense.
  4. More users increase total activity, while individual participant value remains roughly unchanged.
  5. More qualified sellers attract buyers, while more buyers attract sellers and improve the value of participation on both sides.

Correct answer: E

Case: The claim concerns a two-sided marketplace, rather than internal efficiency from processing more transactions.

Useful supply can improve buyer choice; demand can improve sellers’ opportunity to transact. The described feedback directly supports a cross-side mechanism.

A. Why this choice falls short

Is cost scale.

B. Why this choice falls short

Concerns acquisition efficiency.

C. Why this choice falls short

Describes internal operating improvements.

D. Why this choice falls short

Offers no change in participant value. Further testing is needed to establish causation and scope.

Related Week 2 deck

TablePilot expansion and cash

Medium (4/8)

W2-S133 · Source slide 133

TablePilot has $300,000 usable cash. Expansion costs $75,000 immediately. Current monthly receipts are $24,000 and total outflows are $49,000; expansion adds $15,000 monthly outflows. With no incremental receipts, financing, or other cash flows, and constant monthly flows, what runway remains after the upfront payment?

  1. 12.0 months.
  2. 7.5 months.
  3. 5.6 months.
  4. 4.6 months.
  5. 20.0 months.

Correct answer: C

Case: Cash begins at $300,000; expansion costs $75,000 upfront. Monthly outflows rise from $49,000 to $64,000 while receipts remain $24,000.

Remaining cash = $225,000. Net burn = $64,000 − $24,000 = $40,000 monthly. Runway = $225,000 ÷ $40,000 = 5.625 months.

A. Why this choice falls short

Describes current-plan runway.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the upfront payment.

D. Why this choice falls short

Divides remaining cash by current gross outflows.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides opening cash by only incremental monthly spending. Expansion receipts and collection timing need a separate projection.

Source notes

Fictional scenario. Current total outflows already include delivery, acquisition, onboarding, and overhead; the expansion amounts are additional.

Related Week 2 deck

Gross-profit CAC payback

Medium (4/8)

P001 · New quantitative practice

A subscription firm spends $93,600 on sales and marketing and acquires 120 new customers. Each pays $125 per month. Gross margin is 65%; the firm also reports fixed corporate overhead of $18,000 per month. Assume all acquisition spending is attributable to these customers, monthly billings equal revenue, and there is no churn. What is gross-profit CAC payback, expressed in months and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 1152.0 months
  2. 115.2 months
  3. 6.2 months
  4. 17.8 months
  5. 9.6 months

Correct answer: E

CAC = $93,600 / 120 = $780. Monthly gross profit per customer = $125 × 65% = $81.25. Payback = CAC / monthly gross profit = 9.6 months. Corporate overhead is outside this stated gross-profit measure.

A. Why this choice falls short

This fails to divide acquisition spending by the number of customers acquired.

B. Why this choice falls short

The revenue input is already monthly. Multiplying the answer by 12 confuses months and years.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses revenue rather than gross profit as the monthly recovery of acquisition cost.

D. Why this choice falls short

This treats the cost-of-revenue percentage as gross margin.

Related Week 2 deck

Operating cash break-even volume

Medium (3/8)

P002 · New quantitative practice

A company sells one monthly service plan for $240 per customer. Variable cash delivery and support costs are $90 per customer per month. Fixed monthly operating cash costs are $54,000. The founder has already paid $45,000 for equipment, and monthly depreciation is $2,000. Ignore taxes, financing, further equipment purchases, and working-capital changes. How many active customers are needed for monthly operating cash break-even?

  1. 373
  2. 360
  3. 225
  4. 660
  5. 600

Correct answer: B

Monthly cash contribution per customer = 240 − 90 = 150. Break-even customers = 54000 / 150 = 360. The prior equipment purchase is sunk for this monthly calculation; depreciation is noncash.

A. Why this choice falls short

This includes noncash depreciation in a cash break-even calculation.

C. Why this choice falls short

This ignores variable delivery and support costs.

D. Why this choice falls short

This charges a historical equipment purchase against the current month’s operating cash break-even.

E. Why this choice falls short

This divides fixed costs by variable cost instead of contribution per customer.

Related Week 2 deck

Retention of the starting customer cohort

Medium (3/8)

P003 · New quantitative practice

A SaaS company starts with 1,800 customers. It loses 2.5% of the remaining starting cohort at each month-end for 9 months. It also adds 100 new customers each month, whose retention is tracked separately. No customer in the starting cohort returns after leaving. How many customers from the original cohort remain after month 9, rounded to the nearest customer?

  1. 367
  2. 1,433
  3. 2,333
  4. 1,395
  5. 1,470

Correct answer: B

Remaining original customers = 1,800 × (1 − 0.025)^9 = 1433.2239, or 1,433. New signups do not belong in the original-cohort measure.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is the number lost from the starting cohort, not the number remaining.

C. Why this choice falls short

This includes new customers even though the question asks only about the starting cohort.

D. Why this choice falls short

This applies churn repeatedly to the original balance rather than the shrinking cohort.

E. Why this choice falls short

This omits the final month’s churn.

Related Week 2 deck

Net revenue retention with new customer growth

Medium (3/8)

P004 · New quantitative practice

Beginning annual recurring revenue from existing customers is $480,000. During the year, those customers add $96,000 of expansion ARR, reduce subscriptions by $24,000, and cancel $72,000 of ARR. New customers contribute another $180,000 of ARR. All figures are measured on the same annualized basis. What is net revenue retention for the beginning customer cohort, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 100.0%
  2. 0.0%
  3. 105.0%
  4. 80.0%
  5. 137.5%

Correct answer: A

Ending ARR from the beginning cohort = 480,000 + 96,000 − 24,000 − 72,000 = 480,000. NRR = ending cohort ARR / beginning cohort ARR = 100.0%. New-customer ARR is excluded.

B. Why this choice falls short

This reports net change as a percentage rather than ending cohort ARR divided by beginning cohort ARR.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits subscription contractions.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is gross retention; it omits expansion within the starting cohort.

E. Why this choice falls short

This includes new-customer ARR, which is excluded from NRR.

Related Week 2 deck

Gross-profit LTV relative to CAC

Medium (4/8)

P005 · New quantitative practice

A subscription business has monthly revenue per customer of $160, gross margin of 75%, and constant monthly customer churn of 4.0%. CAC is $1,200. Use the simplified expected-lifetime model with no discounting, no expansion, and no reactivation; expected lifetime in months is the reciprocal of monthly churn. What is gross-profit LTV divided by CAC, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 0.21×
  2. 3.33×
  3. 0.40×
  4. 0.83×
  5. 2.50×

Correct answer: E

Expected lifetime = 1 / 0.04 months. Gross-profit LTV = 160 × 0.75 / 0.04 = $3,000.00. Divide by CAC of 1,200: LTV/CAC = 2.50×. This simplified model does not estimate a discounted enterprise value.

A. Why this choice falls short

This annualizes churn while leaving revenue on a monthly basis.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses revenue LTV and omits gross margin.

C. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the LTV/CAC ratio.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses the cost percentage rather than gross margin.

Related Week 2 deck

Gross-profit CAC payback

Medium (4/8)

P013 · New quantitative practice

A subscription firm spends $126,000 on sales and marketing and acquires 140 new customers. Each pays $150 per month. Gross margin is 60%; the firm also reports fixed corporate overhead of $18,000 per month. Assume all acquisition spending is attributable to these customers, monthly billings equal revenue, and there is no churn. What is gross-profit CAC payback, expressed in months and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 1400.0 months
  2. 10.0 months
  3. 15.0 months
  4. 6.0 months
  5. 120.0 months

Correct answer: B

CAC = $126,000 / 140 = $900. Monthly gross profit per customer = $150 × 60% = $90.00. Payback = CAC / monthly gross profit = 10.0 months. Corporate overhead is outside this stated gross-profit measure.

A. Why this choice falls short

This fails to divide acquisition spending by the number of customers acquired.

C. Why this choice falls short

This treats the cost-of-revenue percentage as gross margin.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses revenue rather than gross profit as the monthly recovery of acquisition cost.

E. Why this choice falls short

The revenue input is already monthly. Multiplying the answer by 12 confuses months and years.

Related Week 2 deck

Operating cash break-even volume

Medium (3/8)

P014 · New quantitative practice

A company sells one monthly service plan for $320 per customer. Variable cash delivery and support costs are $120 per customer per month. Fixed monthly operating cash costs are $76,000. The founder has already paid $45,000 for equipment, and monthly depreciation is $2,000. Ignore taxes, financing, further equipment purchases, and working-capital changes. How many active customers are needed for monthly operating cash break-even?

  1. 380
  2. 390
  3. 605
  4. 633
  5. 238

Correct answer: A

Monthly cash contribution per customer = 320 − 120 = 200. Break-even customers = 76000 / 200 = 380. The prior equipment purchase is sunk for this monthly calculation; depreciation is noncash.

B. Why this choice falls short

This includes noncash depreciation in a cash break-even calculation.

C. Why this choice falls short

This charges a historical equipment purchase against the current month’s operating cash break-even.

D. Why this choice falls short

This divides fixed costs by variable cost instead of contribution per customer.

E. Why this choice falls short

This ignores variable delivery and support costs.

Related Week 2 deck

Retention of the starting customer cohort

Medium (3/8)

P015 · New quantitative practice

A SaaS company starts with 2,400 customers. It loses 3.5% of the remaining starting cohort at each month-end for 8 months. It also adds 100 new customers each month, whose retention is tracked separately. No customer in the starting cohort returns after leaving. How many customers from the original cohort remain after month 8, rounded to the nearest customer?

  1. 1,870
  2. 595
  3. 1,728
  4. 1,805
  5. 2,605

Correct answer: D

Remaining original customers = 2,400 × (1 − 0.035)^8 = 1804.8028, or 1,805. New signups do not belong in the original-cohort measure.

A. Why this choice falls short

This omits the final month’s churn.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is the number lost from the starting cohort, not the number remaining.

C. Why this choice falls short

This applies churn repeatedly to the original balance rather than the shrinking cohort.

E. Why this choice falls short

This includes new customers even though the question asks only about the starting cohort.

Related Week 2 deck

Net revenue retention with new customer growth

Medium (3/8)

P016 · New quantitative practice

Beginning annual recurring revenue from existing customers is $650,000. During the year, those customers add $117,000 of expansion ARR, reduce subscriptions by $39,000, and cancel $52,000 of ARR. New customers contribute another $210,000 of ARR. All figures are measured on the same annualized basis. What is net revenue retention for the beginning customer cohort, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 4.0%
  2. 86.0%
  3. 110.0%
  4. 136.3%
  5. 104.0%

Correct answer: E

Ending ARR from the beginning cohort = 650,000 + 117,000 − 39,000 − 52,000 = 676,000. NRR = ending cohort ARR / beginning cohort ARR = 104.0%. New-customer ARR is excluded.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reports net change as a percentage rather than ending cohort ARR divided by beginning cohort ARR.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is gross retention; it omits expansion within the starting cohort.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits subscription contractions.

D. Why this choice falls short

This includes new-customer ARR, which is excluded from NRR.

Related Week 2 deck

Gross-profit LTV relative to CAC

Medium (4/8)

P017 · New quantitative practice

A subscription business has monthly revenue per customer of $210, gross margin of 70%, and constant monthly customer churn of 3.5%. CAC is $1,400. Use the simplified expected-lifetime model with no discounting, no expansion, and no reactivation; expected lifetime in months is the reciprocal of monthly churn. What is gross-profit LTV divided by CAC, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 4.29×
  2. 1.29×
  3. 0.25×
  4. 0.33×
  5. 3.00×

Correct answer: E

Expected lifetime = 1 / 0.035 months. Gross-profit LTV = 210 × 0.7 / 0.035 = $4,200.00. Divide by CAC of 1,400: LTV/CAC = 3.00×. This simplified model does not estimate a discounted enterprise value.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses revenue LTV and omits gross margin.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses the cost percentage rather than gross margin.

C. Why this choice falls short

This annualizes churn while leaving revenue on a monthly basis.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the LTV/CAC ratio.

Related Week 2 deck

Week 3: Financial Statement Analysis

Connecting profit and cash

Hard (6/8)

W3-S006 · Source slide 6

A startup collects $180,000 on January 1 for twelve months of service delivered evenly. It purchases $36,000 of equipment the same day, depreciated straight-line over three years with no residual value. Ignore taxes and all other activity.

At January 31, which combination is correct?

  1. Profit $15,000; net cash increase $144,000; deferred revenue $165,000.
  2. Profit $14,000; net cash increase $144,000; deferred revenue $165,000.
  3. Profit $14,000; net cash increase $179,000; deferred revenue $165,000.
  4. Profit $14,000; net cash increase $144,000; deferred revenue $180,000.
  5. Profit $179,000; net cash increase $144,000; deferred revenue $0.

Correct answer: B

January revenue = $180,000 / 12 = $15,000. Depreciation = $36,000 / 36 = $1,000; profit is $14,000.

Cash increases by $180,000 − $36,000 = $144,000. Deferred revenue is $180,000 − $15,000 = $165,000.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits depreciation.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats depreciation as the equipment cash payment.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits revenue released from the liability.

E. Why this choice falls short

Recognizes the entire advance as January revenue.

Related Week 3 deck

Vertical analysis

Easy (0/8)

W3-S010 · Source slide 10

An analyst wants to see what share of each revenue dollar goes to cost of goods sold and operating expenses. Which tool answers this directly?

  1. Horizontal analysis
  2. Peer benchmarking
  3. Vertical analysis
  4. Cohort analysis
  5. Terminal value analysis

Correct answer: C

Case: The analyst wants costs as a share of revenue.

Vertical analysis expresses each line item as a percentage of a base, usually revenue.

Key takeaway: Vertical is proportion within a period; horizontal is trend over time; peer is comparison across firms.

A. Why this choice falls short

Horizontal analysis compares amounts across periods. It does not directly express each cost as a proportion of revenue in one period.

B. Why this choice falls short

Peer benchmarking compares firms. The requested calculation is each line item divided by the same firm's revenue.

D. Why this choice falls short

Tracks customer groups.

E. Why this choice falls short

Values cash flows beyond the forecast.

Related Week 3 deck

Ratios and payment capacity

Hard (6/8)

W3-S013 · Source slide 13

A startup reports $300,000 cash, $600,000 net receivables, $400,000 inventory, and $200,000 prepaid costs. Current liabilities are $1 million. There are no marketable securities. Most receivables arrive in 90 days, while a large supplier payment is due in 30 days. Under the stated course definitions, which assessment is correct?

  1. Current ratio 0.90×; quick ratio 1.50×; the receivable balance proves timely payment capacity.
  2. Current ratio 1.50×; quick ratio 0.90×; the collection and payment schedule still needs testing.
  3. Current ratio 1.50×; quick ratio 1.30×; inventory should be included in the quick-ratio numerator.
  4. Current ratio 1.30×; quick ratio 0.90×; prepaid costs should be excluded from current assets.
  5. Current ratio 1.50×; quick ratio 1.10×; prepaid costs can fund the upcoming supplier payment.

Correct answer: B

Calculation: Current assets = $0.3m + $0.6m + $0.4m + $0.2m = $1.5m. Quick assets = $0.3m + $0.6m = $0.9m. Divide each by $1.0m of current liabilities.

Interpretation: Receivables due in 90 days may not fund a payment due in 30. The case does not provide enough payment detail to conclude that default is certain.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the ratios.

C. Why this choice falls short

Includes inventory in quick assets.

D. Why this choice falls short

Excludes prepaid current assets from the current ratio.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats prepaid costs as quick assets.

Related Week 3 deck

Analyst posture

Easy (1/8)

W3-S017 · Source slide 17

A founder presents financials that recognize revenue at signing and emphasize cash inflows over outflows.. What posture should the analyst take?

  1. Accept the statements, since founders know the business best
  2. Reject the company as uninvestable on accounting grounds
  3. Verify data quality and reconcile to cash
  4. Require audited GAAP statements before any analysis
  5. Rely on the income statement and set the cash flows aside

Correct answer: C

Case: The founder records revenue at signing and emphasizes inflows.

Assume the data is imperfect, stay skeptical, and reconcile it to contracts, cash, and operating evidence.

Key takeaway: Startup data is often incomplete. Reconcile the narrative to contracts, cash, and operating evidence.

A. Why this choice falls short

Accepts unverified reports.

B. Why this choice falls short

Jumps to rejection.

D. Why this choice falls short

Makes an audit a prerequisite to analysis.

E. Why this choice falls short

Ignores cash timing.

Related Week 3 deck

Agent revenue

Medium (3/8)

W3-S022 · Source slide 22

A platform facilitates $10 million of customer transactions during the year and retains a 15% commission on each transaction. The platform has 250,000 active users, an average transaction value of $40, and incurred $600,000 of marketing costs and $400,000 of platform-development costs during the year. The third-party sellers are responsible for fulfilling the orders, and the platform does not control the underlying goods or services before they are transferred to customers.

Under ASC 606, how much revenue should the platform report?

  1. $10 million, the full amount it processed
  2. $8.5 million, net of the fee it pays out
  3. $11.5 million gross, with the payout as expense
  4. $1.5 million, the fee it retains as agent
  5. Either amount, since net income is the same

Correct answer: D

Control determines the treatment

The platform does not control the goods or services before transfer. It acts as an agent and reports its commission as revenue.

Revenue = $10m × 15% = $1.5m

Marketing and development costs do not determine whether revenue is reported gross or net.

A. Why this choice falls short

$10m is total transaction volume.

B. Why this choice falls short

$8.5m is the sellers’ share.

C. Why this choice falls short

$11.5m adds a commission already included in the $10m.

E. Why this choice falls short

Gross versus net reporting follows the control assessment. It is not a reporting choice.

Related Week 3 deck

Cash collections

Easy (0/8)

W3-S026 · Source slide 26

A founder says the company 'did $5 million last quarter.' Which figure most directly shows cash actually received from customers during that quarter?

  1. Bookings
  2. Cash collections
  3. Billings
  4. Recognized revenue
  5. Annual recurring revenue

Correct answer: B

Case: A founder says the company “did $5 million” in a quarter.

Cash collections measure customer payments received during the quarter. Cash still on hand also depends on beginning cash and every cash inflow and outflow.

Key takeaway: Bookings, billings, revenue, and collections measure different things. Reconcile cash movements to the ending cash balance.

A. Why this choice falls short

Signed contracts measure bookings or commitments. They do not show how much customer cash has arrived.

C. Why this choice falls short

Invoices measure billings and receivables. Customers may pay them later.

D. Why this choice falls short

Earned revenue reflects delivery or performance. Its recognition can occur before or after the related cash collection.

E. Why this choice falls short

Is recurring revenue scale. None establishes customer payment.

Related Week 3 deck

Deferred revenue

Easy (1/8)

W3-S029 · Source slide 29

A startup's operating cash flow is positive because customers increasingly pay before the company delivers, creating deferred revenue. This indicates that:

  1. Delivered revenue is growing strongly this period
  2. The company carries no future delivery obligations
  3. Net income is being understated this period
  4. The cash can be recognized as revenue now
  5. Cash arrived ahead of an obligation to deliver

Correct answer: E

Case: Advance customer payments drive positive operating cash flow.

In this case, customers paid before delivery. The company still owes the promised goods or services.

Key takeaway: Customer advances can support the business. Test the costs and timing of delivery, refunds, and future collections.

A. Why this choice falls short

Infer unsupported performance or profit effects.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores delivery obligations.

C. Why this choice falls short

Infer unsupported performance or profit effects.

D. Why this choice falls short

Recognizes revenue before performance.

Related Week 3 deck

Deferred revenue and refunds

Hard (6/8)

W3-S031 · Source slide 31

A SaaS company begins the year with $84,000 of deferred revenue. Customers pay before the related service revenue is recognized, and the company has no accounts receivable.

The company reports the following activity for the first three quarters:

ItemQ1Q2Q3
Gross customer cash collections$180,000$120,000$225,000
Revenue recognized$150,000$165,000$195,000
Cash refunds of unearned advances$0$15,000$9,000

Every refund returns an unearned customer advance already included in deferred revenue. None reverses revenue that was previously recognized, and there are no other changes to the deferred-revenue balance.

Management highlights the strong third-quarter cash collections in its investor update.

At September 30, what is the deferred-revenue balance, and how do year-to-date customer cash collections after refunds compare with year-to-date recognized revenue?

  1. Deferred revenue: $60,000; net collections are $24,000 below recognized revenue.
  2. Deferred revenue: $75,000; net collections are $9,000 below recognized revenue.
  3. Deferred revenue: $99,000; net collections are $15,000 above recognized revenue.
  4. Deferred revenue: $105,000; net collections are $21,000 above recognized revenue.
  5. Deferred revenue: $123,000; net collections are $39,000 above recognized revenue.

Correct answer: B

Gross collections = $180,000 + $120,000 + $225,000 = $525,000. Refunds total $24,000, so net customer collections are $501,000. Recognized revenue = $150,000 + $165,000 + $195,000 = $510,000. Net collections are therefore $9,000 below revenue. Ending deferred revenue = opening deferred revenue + gross collections − refunds − recognized revenue = $84,000 + $525,000 − $24,000 − $510,000 = $75,000. The quarter-end balances are $114,000, $54,000, and $75,000. The $9,000 decline in the liability reconciles the year-to-date cash-versus-revenue difference.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses only the $24,000 of refunds as the change in deferred revenue and as the collections shortfall. It omits the $15,000 excess of gross collections over recognized revenue.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses gross collections of $525,000 instead of net collections of $501,000, omitting both quarters of refunds.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds only Q3 net activity, $225,000 − $9,000 − $195,000 = $21,000, to the January opening balance. It also substitutes the Q3 difference for the requested year-to-date difference.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds the $24,000 of refunds to collections instead of subtracting them, yielding $549,000 − $510,000 = $39,000 and $84,000 + $39,000 = $123,000.

Related Week 3 deck

Operating cash flow

Hard (7/8)

W3-S036 · Source slide 36

A SaaS company begins the year with $250,000 of cash and reports a $450,000 net loss for the year. The net loss includes $120,000 of depreciation and amortization and $90,000 of noncash stock-based compensation.

The following operating balances change during the year:

AccountChange
Accounts receivableIncrease of $160,000
Accounts payableIncrease of $70,000
Deferred revenueIncrease of $480,000

These changes arise only from ordinary operating transactions. The increase in deferred revenue comes from customers paying in advance for future services.

The company also pays $210,000 for capital expenditures, receives $300,000 from new borrowing, and repays $60,000 of loan principal.

Assume no other noncash adjustments, working-capital changes, tax or interest timing adjustments, or cash flows. Use the indirect method under U.S. GAAP.

What are cash flow from operations and the total change in cash for the year?

  1. Operating cash flow: −$330,000; total cash change: −$300,000.
  2. Operating cash flow: $60,000; total cash change: $90,000.
  3. Operating cash flow: $150,000; total cash change: $180,000.
  4. Operating cash flow: $390,000; total cash change: $180,000.
  5. Operating cash flow: $470,000; total cash change: $500,000.

Correct answer: C

Operating cash flow = −$450,000 + $120,000 + $90,000 − $160,000 + $70,000 + $480,000 = $150,000. Investing cash flow is −$210,000, and financing cash flow is $300,000 − $60,000 = $240,000. Total change in cash = $150,000 − $210,000 + $240,000 = $180,000. Ending cash would be $250,000 + $180,000 = $430,000, but the question asks for the change. Operating cash flow less CapEx is −$60,000, so the increase in the bank balance depends on financing. Customer advances also contribute materially to positive operating cash flow; they accompany future service obligations.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits the $480,000 increase in deferred revenue from customer advances. Those cash receipts precede revenue recognition and must be reflected in operating cash flow.

B. Why this choice falls short

Does not add back the $90,000 noncash compensation expense already deducted in net loss. This is an operating-cash-flow reconciliation, not a claim that stock compensation has no economic cost.

D. Why this choice falls short

Includes $240,000 of net borrowing in operating cash flow. It can still reach the right total cash change by misclassifying those financing flows and subtracting CapEx, but the requested operating subtotal is wrong.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds the $160,000 increase in receivables instead of subtracting it. The resulting $320,000 overstatement carries into the total cash change.

Related Week 3 deck

Compounding over one and two years

W3-S041 · Source slide 41

One year

You invest $1,000 today at 5% per year, compounded annually, with no additional deposits or withdrawals. How much will you have at the end of one year?

Two years

Leave the same $1,000 invested for two years at 5%, with no deposits or withdrawals. Is the ending balance $1,100, or does compounding produce a different result? Explain before calculating.

Explanation · ungraded

FV = PV × (1 + r)ⁿ.

Year 1: $1,000 × 1.05 = $1,050.

Year 2: $1,000 × 1.05² = $1,102.50.

Year 1 earns $50 of interest. Year 2 earns $52.50 because the first year’s interest also earns interest. That produces $2.50 more than simple interest over two years.

Related Week 3 deck

Present value of a future target

W3-S043 · Source slide 43

PV = FV / (1 + r)ⁿ.

Discounting expresses a future amount in today’s dollars at the stated rate.

You want $2,000 at the end of five years and can earn 5% per year, compounded annually. There will be no additional contributions or withdrawals.

How much must you invest today?

Explanation · ungraded

PV = $2,000 / 1.05⁵ = $1,567.05. Interest grows the smaller contribution to the target over five years.

TI BA II Plus: Clear TVM and check P/Y = C/Y = 1.

VariableMeaningEntry
NNumber of periods5
I/YAnnual rate in percent units5
PMTEqual recurring payment0
FVFuture amount+2,000
PVPresent amount, computed−1,567.05

Enter PMT = 0 explicitly. The negative PV marks money paid today.

Related Week 3 deck

Discounted prepayments

Easy (1/8)

W3-S048 · Source slide 48

A company lifted this quarter's cash by offering customers 50% discounts to prepay annually. On a cash-basis view, the inflow is best read as:

  1. Cash arrives earlier, while future delivery obligations remain
  2. A durable improvement in operating performance
  3. Evidence of strong underlying unit economics
  4. Irrelevant, since cash is always the best signal
  5. A reduction in the company's deferred revenue

Correct answer: A

Case: Customers receive a 50% discount for annual prepayment.

Annual prepayment accelerates collection. The 50% discount lowers the price per period of service, but profitability still depends on delivery costs and customer behavior.

Key takeaway: Check collection timing, discounted contribution, and the remaining fulfillment costs before treating the inflow as sustainable performance.

B. Why this choice falls short

Infer durability or economics without evidence.

C. Why this choice falls short

Infer durability or economics without evidence.

D. Why this choice falls short

Prepayment changes when cash is received, which can materially affect liquidity even when revenue is earned over time.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the usual deferred-revenue effect.

Related Week 3 deck

Discounted prepayments

Hard (7/8)

W3-S050 · Source slide 50

A company offers a three-year service contract under two payment options:

Annual billing: The customer pays $140,000 at the end of each year for three years.

Prepayment: The customer pays the full three-year contract price today and receives an 18% discount from the total undiscounted price.

If the customer prepays, the company also incurs an $8,400 processing and contract-administration cost today. This cost is not incurred under annual billing.

The company can immediately reinvest any cash it receives in another business line that is expected to earn a 22% annual return over the next three years. The company incurs $28,000 of service-delivery costs at the end of each year under either payment option.

Assume the service obligations are identical, all amounts are collected as scheduled, and there are no taxes or other incremental cash flows. Treat 22% as the appropriate annual opportunity cost of capital for this comparison.

What is the incremental NPV today to the company of accepting prepayment rather than annual billing, rounded to the nearest $100?

  1. −$84,000
  2. −$12,800
  3. −$7,100
  4. +$50,100
  5. +$58,500

Correct answer: D

The nominal three-year price is 3 × $140,000 = $420,000. Gross prepayment = $420,000 × 82% = $344,400; net cash today = $344,400 − $8,400 = $336,000. Present value of annual receipts = $140,000/1.22 + $140,000/1.22² + $140,000/1.22³ = $285,913.80. Incremental NPV = $336,000 − $285,913.80 = +$50,086.20, or +$50,100 to the nearest $100. The $28,000 delivery payments occur on identical dates under both alternatives and cancel. The positive incremental NPV supports prepayment under the stated assumptions despite the lower nominal price.

A. Why this choice falls short

Compares the $336,000 net upfront cash with the $420,000 undiscounted annual receipts. It ignores the value of receiving cash earlier.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats the annual payments as occurring at signing and at the ends of years one and two. They actually arrive at the ends of years one, two, and three.

C. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the present value of the $28,000 annual delivery costs from only the prepayment alternative. The same costs occur at the same dates under annual billing, so they cancel in the incremental comparison.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses the $344,400 discounted contract price as net upfront cash, omitting the additional $8,400 fee due today.

Related Week 3 deck

Growth and collection timing

Easy (1/8)

W3-S053 · Source slide 53

A startup earns a positive contribution margin on every new customer. Customer acquisition spending is paid immediately, but customers pay invoices 60 days later. Sales are accelerating rapidly. Which conclusion is most accurate?

  1. Positive contribution margin should reduce financing needs as sales grow because customer-level profit eventually offsets acquisition spending.
  2. The 60-day collection lag matters mainly for working-capital presentation, while funding needs depend primarily on customer contribution margin.
  3. Faster growth can increase short-term financing needs because acquisition cash is paid before the related customer cash is collected.
  4. Faster growth should improve liquidity if the company maintains the same acquisition cost and contribution margin per customer.
  5. The company is likely default alive if contribution margin remains positive, even when customer collections continue to lag acquisition spending.

Correct answer: C

Case: Acquisition cash is paid immediately. Customer invoices are collected 60 days later. Each new customer has positive contribution margin.

Answer C: Faster growth adds more customers whose acquisition spending must be funded before their payments arrive.

Default alive: The company is projected to reach profitability before its existing cash runs out, assuming constant expenses and continued recent revenue growth.

Course interpretation of the collection-lag case. Paul Graham: Default Alive or Default Dead?

A. Why this choice falls short

Positive contribution and stable unit costs do not eliminate the collection gap.

B. Why this choice falls short

The collection lag creates a real cash requirement.

D. Why this choice falls short

Positive contribution and stable unit costs do not eliminate the collection gap.

E. Why this choice falls short

Default alive depends on the full path to cash sustainability, including overhead, growth, and available cash.

Related Week 3 deck

Profit and delayed collections

Hard (7/8)

W3-S056 · Source slide 56

A startup is preparing its first-quarter forecast. It begins January with $180,000 of cash and no accounts receivable or accounts payable.

MonthOrders expected to be delivered
January80
February120
March200

Each one-time order has the following terms:

The company recognizes $1,200 of revenue when it delivers the order.

Acquisition and delivery costs total $900, paid and expensed in the delivery month.

The customer pays in full at the end of the second month after delivery. For example, January orders are collected at the end of March.

Fixed operating costs are $15,000 per month, paid and expensed monthly. An investor has mentioned a possible $500,000 investment in a nonbinding letter, but the forecast includes no financing.

Assume all scheduled orders are delivered, with no taxes, noncash items, payment deferrals, or other cash flows. A negative projected cash balance represents an unfunded shortfall.

What are projected first-quarter operating profit and the March 31 cash balance before financing?

  1. Operating profit: −$129,000; cash before financing: $75,000.
  2. Operating profit: $75,000; cash before financing: −$225,000.
  3. Operating profit: $75,000; cash before financing: −$129,000.
  4. Operating profit: $75,000; cash before financing: $255,000.
  5. Operating profit: $120,000; cash before financing: −$84,000.

Correct answer: C

There are 400 delivered orders. Revenue = 400 × $1,200 = $480,000. Variable costs = 400 × $900 = $360,000, and fixed costs = 3 × $15,000 = $45,000. Operating profit = $75,000. Only January's 80 orders are collected by March 31: 80 × $1,200 = $96,000. Unfinanced cash = $180,000 + $96,000 − $360,000 − $45,000 = −$129,000. The negative modeled balance identifies a funding shortfall; it is not spendable cash.

A. Why this choice falls short

Confuses the operating-profit result with the unfinanced cash deficit.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the $96,000 collection from January orders that arrives at the end of March.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats all first-quarter sales as collected: $180,000 + $480,000 − $405,000 = $255,000.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits the $45,000 of fixed costs from both profit and cash payments.

Related Week 3 deck

Collection timing and cash required

Medium (4/8)

W3-S061 · Source slide 61

Annual credit sales are $3.65 million and average receivables are $500,000. Sales occur evenly, bad debts are negligible, and inventory and supplier terms remain unchanged. Management can reduce DSO to 35 days without affecting sales or margins.

Using 365 days, what are current DSO and the one-time cash released when receivables reach the target?

  1. Current DSO: 35 days; cash released: $150,000.
  2. Current DSO: 50 days; cash released: $350,000.
  3. Current DSO: 50 days; cash released: $500,000.
  4. Current DSO: 50 days; cash released: $150,000.
  5. Current DSO: 73 days; cash released: $150,000.

Correct answer: D

Daily credit sales = $3,650,000 / 365 = $10,000. Current DSO = $500,000 / $10,000 = 50 days.

Target receivables = 35 × $10,000 = $350,000. The reduction releases $150,000 once; it is not additional recurring revenue or profit.

A. Why this choice falls short

Confuses target with current DSO.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reports the target balance.

C. Why this choice falls short

Releases all receivables.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the timing calculation.

Related Week 3 deck

Working capital and FCFF

Easy (0/8)

W3-S066 · Source slide 66

In the FCFF formula, how does an increase in net operating working capital, excluding cash and financing debt, affect free cash flow?

  1. It increases FCFF, as a source of cash
  2. It has no effect on FCFF either way
  3. It increases FCFF only when debt rises
  4. It decreases FCFF, as a use of cash
  5. It reduces net income but not FCFF

Correct answer: D

Case: Net operating working capital increases in an FCFF calculation.

More cash tied up in receivables or inventory is a use of cash, so FCFF falls.

Key takeaway: An increase in net operating working capital is a use of cash. It is subtracted in both FCFF and FCFE under consistent definitions.

A. Why this choice falls short

An increase in operating working capital ties up cash. It is subtracted, not added, when moving from operating earnings to FCFF.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the cash use.

C. Why this choice falls short

Confuses debt with operations.

E. Why this choice falls short

Confuses cash use with expense recognition.

Related Week 3 deck

Free cash flow to the firm

Hard (7/8)

W3-S068 · Source slide 68

A profitable equipment-software company reports the following annual results:

EBIT: $6.40 million, after $0.90 million of depreciation and amortization.

Capital expenditures: $1.70 million.

Tax rate: 25%.

Its only operating working-capital accounts are shown below. All balances are in millions of dollars.

AccountBeginning balanceEnding balance
Accounts receivable$1.20$1.90
Inventory$0.65$0.95
Accounts payable$0.80$1.15

During the year, the company also pays $0.40 million of interest, issues $0.90 million of new debt, and repays $0.25 million of debt principal.

Assume no loss carryforwards, tax timing differences, or other noncash adjustments.

What is the company's annual free cash flow to the firm (FCFF)?

  1. $3.00 million.
  2. $3.35 million.
  3. $3.70 million.
  4. $4.00 million.
  5. $4.65 million.

Correct answer: B

Beginning net operating working capital = $1.20m + $0.65m − $0.80m = $1.05m. Ending NOWC = $1.90m + $0.95m − $1.15m = $1.70m, an increase of $0.65m. After-tax EBIT = $6.40m × 75% = $4.80m. FCFF = EBIT × (1 − tax rate) + D&A − CapEx − increase in NOWC = $4.80m + $0.90m − $1.70m − $0.65m = $3.35m. Interest, borrowing, and principal repayment belong to the financing/equity bridge rather than this EBIT-based FCFF calculation.

A. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the $1.00 million increase in receivables and inventory without recognizing the $0.35 million increase in payables as operating financing.

C. Why this choice falls short

Computes FCFE instead: $3.35m − $0.40m × 75% + $0.90m − $0.25m = $3.70m. The question requests cash flow to all capital providers before debt financing flows.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds the $0.65 million net borrowing to FCFF. Debt issuance and principal repayment are financing flows, not components of FCFF.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds the $0.65 million increase in operating working capital instead of subtracting it: $4.80m + $0.90m − $1.70m + $0.65m = $4.65m.

Related Week 3 deck

Runway

Easy (2/8)

W3-S071 · Source slide 71

Practice convention

Assume the $1.8 million is available for operations, net burn remains constant, and no separate minimum cash balance is required.

A pre-revenue startup holds $1.8 million in cash and burns $150,000 net per month. What is its runway?

  1. 9 months
  2. 18 months
  3. 6 months
  4. 15 months
  5. 12 months

Correct answer: E

Case: Usable cash is $1.8M and constant monthly net burn is $150,000.

$1.8 million divided by $150,000 per month equals 12 months.

Key takeaway: Runway estimates time until usable cash is exhausted under the assumed spending and collection pattern. Accounting profit alone does not establish cash sustainability.

Forecast limits: Collections, spending, debt payments, and reserves can change the result. Act before cash runs out.

A. Why this choice falls short

Nine months consumes $1.35 million and leaves $450,000. Cash is not yet exhausted.

B. Why this choice falls short

Eighteen months requires $2.7 million at the stated burn, more than the $1.8 million available.

C. Why this choice falls short

Six months consumes only $900,000, half of the available cash.

D. Why this choice falls short

Fifteen months requires $2.25 million, exceeding available cash by $450,000.

Related Week 3 deck

Runway and the cash floor

Hard (7/8)

W3-S073 · Source slide 73

A startup has $1.08 million in its bank accounts. Of that amount, $180,000 is restricted and cannot be used for operations. On day one, the company pays $120,000 for equipment from its usable cash.

Its operating cash forecast is:

PeriodMonthly cash outflowsMonthly cash receipts
Months 1 and 2$210,000$90,000
Month 3 onward$180,000$100,000

The equipment payment is additional to these outflows. Net operating cash use occurs evenly within each month. The company wants to maintain at least $180,000 of usable cash and has no additional financing or other cash flows.

How many months after day one will usable cash first fall to the $180,000 minimum?

  1. 5.00 months.
  2. 6.50 months.
  3. 7.50 months.
  4. 8.00 months.
  5. 8.75 months.

Correct answer: B

Usable opening cash = $1.08m − $0.18m = $0.90m. After equipment, $0.78m remains. The first two months consume 2 × ($0.21m − $0.09m) = $0.24m, leaving $0.54m. Cash available above the floor is $0.54m − $0.18m = $0.36m. Later burn is $0.08m per month, giving 4.5 additional months. Total = 2 + 4.5 = 6.5 months.

A. Why this choice falls short

Applies the initial $120,000 monthly burn to the entire $600,000 spendable amount, ignoring the reduction after month two.

C. Why this choice falls short

Applies the later $80,000 monthly burn from day one, ignoring the higher burn during the first two months.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits the upfront $120,000 equipment payment from the cash schedule.

E. Why this choice falls short

Includes restricted cash as usable, or equivalently ignores the $180,000 cash floor. Either adds $180,000 of unavailable spending capacity.

Related Week 3 deck

Net revenue retention

Easy (1/8)

W3-S078 · Source slide 78

Two SaaS companies each report $10 million ARR. One has 120% net revenue retention; the other has 85%. The difference tells you that:

  1. The existing customer revenue base expands at 120% NRR and contracts at 85% NRR
  2. The two firms are equivalent, since ARR is identical
  3. The 85% firm has higher gross margins by definition
  4. The 120% firm must be spending more to acquire users
  5. Net revenue retention is a vanity metric here

Correct answer: A

Case: Two companies have $10M current ARR but 120% and 85% NRR.

NRR compares recurring revenue from the starting customer base, including expansion, contraction, and churn. It excludes new customer revenue.

Key takeaway: Identical current ARR can conceal different retention patterns. New customer sales may still grow the 85% NRR company overall.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores retention differences.

C. Why this choice falls short

Infer margins or acquisition spending.

D. Why this choice falls short

Infer margins or acquisition spending.

E. Why this choice falls short

Dismisses relevant retention evidence.

Related Week 3 deck

Cohort decay

Easy (1/8)

W3-S081 · Source slide 81

A startup grows revenue 30% year over year, but each customer cohort loses 40% of its revenue within 12 months. The most accurate read is:

  1. Retention is strong and the growth is durable
  2. The business has clearly reached product-market fit
  3. Aggregate growth understates true performance
  4. New customer revenue must offset substantial losses from earlier cohorts
  5. Cohort decay does not matter while ARR rises

Correct answer: D

Case: Overall revenue grows 30%, while each cohort loses 40% over 12 months.

Existing cohorts lose revenue, so new customer revenue must offset that erosion for total revenue to grow. Assess acquisition costs and contribution to judge whether that replacement is economical.

Key takeaway: Aggregate growth can mask weak retention. Cohort revenue, customer retention, and contribution answer different questions.

A. Why this choice falls short

Overstate retention or product-market fit.

B. Why this choice falls short

Overstate retention or product-market fit.

C. Why this choice falls short

Dismiss cohort losses.

E. Why this choice falls short

Dismiss cohort losses.

Related Week 3 deck

PEG Ratio Calculation

Medium (4/8)

W3-S087 · Source slide 87

Practice convention

Use current EPS for P/E and the three-year compound annual EPS growth rate, expressed as a whole percentage, for PEG.

A company’s stock trades at $84 per share. Current EPS is $4.00, and analysts expect EPS to reach $6.91 in three years. Assume earnings grow at a constant annual rate.

What is the company’s approximate PEG ratio?

  1. 0.29
  2. 0.61
  3. 1.05
  4. 1.52
  5. 5.25

Correct answer: C

Current P/E = $84 / $4 = 21. EPS CAGR = ($6.91 / $4)^(1/3) − 1 ≈ 20%. PEG = 21 / 20 ≈ 1.05. The denominator is the annual percentage growth rate, not cumulative growth or the EPS dollar amount.

A. Why this choice falls short

About 0.29 results from dividing 21 by the roughly 72.75% total three-year EPS increase. PEG here uses annualized growth.

B. Why this choice falls short

About 0.61 uses the Year 3 EPS of $6.91 in the P/E numerator calculation. The stated convention uses current EPS of $4.00.

D. Why this choice falls short

With a P/E of 21, a PEG of 1.52 would require roughly 13.8% annual EPS growth. The stated EPS path implies about 20%.

E. Why this choice falls short

5.25 divides the P/E of 21 by the $4 EPS amount. PEG divides P/E by the percentage EPS growth rate.

Related Week 3 deck

Valuation Metrics Multiple Choice

Hard (7/8)

W3-S089 · Source slide 89

Practice convention

Use current market capitalization and current earnings for P/E. For PEG, use compound annual growth in diluted EPS over the stated three years, expressed as a whole percentage.

A company has:

Market capitalization: $3.9 billion

Diluted shares outstanding: 50 million

Current net income: $160 million

Expected net income in three years: $280 million

Expected diluted shares in three years: 52 million

Peer median P/E: 25.0x

Peer median PEG: 1.25x

Assume EPS grows at a constant annual rate. An investor considers the stock attractive only if both its P/E and PEG are below the peer medians. Which analysis is correct?

  1. P/E = 24.4x; PEG = 1.29x; does not meet the criteria
  2. P/E = 24.4x; PEG = 1.19x; meets the criteria
  3. P/E = 24.4x; PEG = 0.98x; meets the criteria
  4. P/E = 14.5x; PEG = 0.77x; meets the criteria
  5. P/E = 25.0x; PEG = 1.29x; does not meet the criteria

Correct answer: A

Current share price = $3.9 billion / 50 million = $78. Current EPS = $160 million / 50 million = $3.20; current P/E = 24.375×, or 24.4×. Expected EPS in three years = $280 million / 52 million ≈ $5.3846. EPS CAGR = ($5.3846 / $3.20)^(1/3) − 1 ≈ 18.94%. PEG ≈ 24.375 / 18.94 = 1.29. P/E is below 25.0×, but PEG exceeds 1.25, so the company fails the requirement that both measures be below their peer medians.

B. Why this choice falls short

This PEG uses growth in total net income without allowing for the share count increasing from 50 million to 52 million. PEG requires per-share earnings growth.

C. Why this choice falls short

About 0.98 uses the 75% total net-income increase divided by three as a 25% annual growth rate. That ignores compounding and dilution.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses Year 3 EPS to obtain a forward P/E of about 14.5×. The comparison uses current P/E, which is about 24.4×.

E. Why this choice falls short

25.0× is the peer median, not this company's P/E. Its current market capitalization divided by net income is 24.375×.

Related Week 3 deck

P/E versus PEG

Hard (6/8)

W3-S091 · Source slide 91

An analyst is comparing two profitable technology companies:

MeasureOrionVega
Current share price$84.00$90.00
Trailing EPS$3.00$5.00
Forecast EPS$3.60$5.60
Recent annual revenue growth35%24%
Dividend yield4%3%

For both companies, trailing earnings per share (EPS) covers the same most recent 12 months, and forecast EPS covers the following 12 months. Assume no stock splits or changes in the share basis.

Use trailing P/E and the conventional PEG ratio based on expected EPS growth from the trailing year to the forecast year.

Which answer gives the correct P/E and PEG for each company, rounded to two decimal places?

  1. Orion: P/E 23.33×, PEG 1.17; Vega: P/E 16.07×, PEG 1.34.
  2. Orion: P/E 28.00×, PEG 0.80; Vega: P/E 18.00×, PEG 0.75.
  3. Orion: P/E 28.00×, PEG 1.17; Vega: P/E 18.00×, PEG 1.20.
  4. Orion: P/E 28.00×, PEG 1.40; Vega: P/E 18.00×, PEG 1.50.
  5. Orion: P/E 28.00×, PEG 1.68; Vega: P/E 18.00×, PEG 1.68.

Correct answer: D

Orion: trailing P/E = $84 ÷ $3 = 28.00×; expected EPS growth = ($3.60 − $3.00) ÷ $3.00 = 20%; PEG = 28 ÷ 20 = 1.40. Vega: trailing P/E = $90 ÷ $5 = 18.00×; expected EPS growth = ($5.60 − $5.00) ÷ $5.00 = 12%; PEG = 18 ÷ 12 = 1.50. Use the growth percentage as a whole number in PEG. Vega has the lower P/E, while Orion has the lower PEG. This ranking is a comparison of measures, not proof that Orion is undervalued: risk, reinvestment, and the durability of the growth estimate still matter.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses forecast EPS in P/E while still measuring growth from trailing EPS. This changes the requested earnings base and counts the coming growth in both parts of the comparison.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses revenue growth, 35% and 24%, rather than expected EPS growth, 20% and 12%.

C. Why this choice falls short

Adds dividend yield to expected EPS growth, giving denominators of 24 and 15. That is a dividend-adjusted measure, not the requested conventional PEG.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides the EPS increase by forecast EPS instead of trailing EPS: growth becomes 16.6667% and 10.7143%, yielding PEG of 1.68 for both.

Related Week 3 deck

Customer concentration

Easy (1/8)

W3-S098 · Source slide 98

In diligence, a startup's top three customers are 60% of revenue with no long-term contracts. In a quality-of-earnings review this most represents:

  1. Customer concentration and durability risk
  2. A working capital timing distortion to normalize
  3. An unrecorded liability that should be accrued
  4. A gross-versus-net revenue misstatement
  5. A terminal value assumption that is too high

Correct answer: A

Case: Three customers account for 60% of revenue without long-term contracts.

Heavy concentration with no long-term contracts threatens revenue durability and scalability if a top account leaves.

Key takeaway: Concentration plus no long-term contracts is a durability red flag. One departure can reset the revenue base.

B. Why this choice falls short

Collection or receivables analysis addresses when cash arrives. It does not measure dependence on one customer for revenue.

C. Why this choice falls short

Liability analysis addresses obligations and claims. It does not identify revenue concentration in a major customer.

D. Why this choice falls short

Gross-versus-net revenue presentation concerns principal-versus-agent reporting. It is different from dependence on a single customer.

E. Why this choice falls short

Could be a valuation consequence, but concentration is the underlying risk.

Related Week 3 deck

Participating preferred

Easy (1/8)

W3-S103 · Source slide 103

A startup exit leaves $8 million available to equity after debt and transaction costs. An investor holds an uncapped 1x participating preferred on a $4 million investment. Versus a 1x non-participating investor, the participating investor generally receives:

  1. Only the $4 million preference and nothing more
  2. The $4 million back, then a share of the rest
  3. Exactly the same amount under either structure
  4. Nothing until common shareholders are paid
  5. Three times the original amount invested

Correct answer: B

Case: $8M is available to equity after debt and costs; $4M was invested in uncapped 1x participating preferred.

Participating preferred takes its capital back and then shares the remaining proceeds pro rata with common.

Key takeaway: Non-participating: preference OR convert. Participating: preference AND a share of the rest.

A. Why this choice falls short

The participating investor receives its preference and then participates in the residual. Paying only the preference omits the second step.

C. Why this choice falls short

The stated participation right affects the residual distribution. Ignoring it overstates the amount left for common holders.

D. Why this choice falls short

The liquidation preference is paid before common participates in the residual, not after common receives a first distribution.

E. Why this choice falls short

Has no basis. The payout depends on ownership, priority, and the contract’s participation terms.

Related Week 3 deck

Value Lease A’s level cash flows

Easy (2/8)

W3-S109 · Source slide 109

Optional NPV practice

Lease A costs the landlord $20,000 today and produces net cash flow of $90,000 at each of the next three year-ends. At an 8% annual discount rate, the three-year ordinary-annuity present-value factor is 2.57709699.

Assume these are all relevant lease cash flows, with no terminal value. What is NPV, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. $191,939
  2. $211,939
  3. $231,939
  4. $250,000
  5. $270,000

Correct answer: B

PV of future receipts = $90,000 × 2.57709699 = $231,938.73.

NPV = −$20,000 + $231,938.73 = $211,938.73, or $211,939.

The time-0 outflow is already in today’s dollars. Deduct it once. Each future receipt is discounted; the sum of undiscounted receipts is not PV.

A. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts the $20,000 initial outlay twice. The present value of the future receipts requires only one time-zero deduction.

C. Why this choice falls short

$231,939 is the present value of the future receipts before the initial $20,000 outlay. NPV includes that outlay.

D. Why this choice falls short

$250,000 is $270,000 of undiscounted receipts less the initial cost. It ignores the time value of money.

E. Why this choice falls short

$270,000 is the undiscounted sum of the three receipts. It neither discounts them nor subtracts the initial outlay.

Related Week 3 deck

Value Lease B’s unequal cash flows

Medium (5/8)

W3-S111 · Source slide 111

Optional NPV practice

Lease B costs the landlord $45,000 today and produces net cash flow of $100,000, $102,000, and $104,000 at the ends of Years 1, 2, and 3, respectively. The annual discount rate is 8%. There is no terminal value or other relevant cash flow.

What is NPV, rounded to the nearest $100?

  1. $217,600
  2. $212,700
  3. $238,600
  4. $261,000
  5. $262,600

Correct answer: A

NPV = −$45,000 + $100,000/1.08 + $102,000/1.08² + $104,000/1.08³ = $217,599.71.

TimeCash flowPresent value at 8%
0($45,000)($45,000.00)
1$100,000$92,592.59
2$102,000$87,448.56
3$104,000$82,558.55

The table rounds individual PVs to cents; the total uses unrounded values. To the nearest $100, NPV is $217,600.

Each receipt has its own amount and date. A single level-payment annuity cannot represent this growing cash-flow stream.

B. Why this choice falls short

About $212,700 treats all three receipts as $100,000. The second and third receipts are $102,000 and $104,000.

C. Why this choice falls short

About $238,600 moves each receipt one year earlier. The question specifies receipts at the ends of Years 1, 2, and 3.

D. Why this choice falls short

$261,000 is the undiscounted $306,000 of receipts less $45,000. Future cash flows must first be discounted.

E. Why this choice falls short

About $262,600 is the present value of receipts without deducting the $45,000 paid today.

Related Week 3 deck

PEG ratio

Medium (4/8)

W3-S113 · Source slide 113

A profitable technology company trades at $120 per share and reports current EPS of $3.00. Analysts expect EPS of $4.50 next year. The company’s industry average P/E is 28×, its dividend yield is 1.5%, and revenue grew 35% this year.

Using expected EPS growth, what is the company’s PEG ratio?

Convention: Use current EPS to calculate P/E.

  1. 0.80
  2. 0.9
  3. 1.14
  4. 1.33
  5. 1.43

Correct answer: A

1. Current P/E

$120 ÷ $3.00 = 40×

2. Expected EPS growth

($4.50 ÷ $3.00 − 1) × 100 = 50%

3. PEG

40 ÷ 50 = 0.80 Use 50 for 50% growth, rather than 0.50.

B. Why this choice falls short

A PEG of 0.90 does not follow from a P/E of 40 and EPS growth of 50%. Those inputs give 40 / 50 = 0.80.

C. Why this choice falls short

1.14 uses 35% revenue growth in place of EPS growth.

D. Why this choice falls short

A PEG of 1.33 would require roughly 30% growth at a P/E of 40. Expected EPS grows by 50%, from $3.00 to $4.50.

E. Why this choice falls short

1.43 divides 40 by the industry P/E of 28. The denominator should be EPS growth.

Source notes

A PEG below 1 is a screening result, not proof of undervaluation; growth durability, risk, and comparable definitions still matter.

Related Week 3 deck

Analyst posture

Medium (4/8)

W3-S115 · Source slide 115

A founder presents investor materials showing $6.0 million of “revenue” based largely on contracts signed during the year. Cash collections were $3.8 million, customer-related cash outflows were $2.9 million, and several contracts require services to be delivered over the next 12 months. The company does not yet prepare audited financial statements.

What is the most appropriate analytical approach?

  1. Use the $6.0 million figure because signed contracts provide the clearest measure of current operating performance.
  2. Use the $3.8 million of collections as revenue because cash receipts are more reliable than management estimates.
  3. Reconstruct revenue and cash flow using contract terms, delivery obligations, collections, and other verifiable information.
  4. Exclude the company from analysis until audited GAAP financial statements become available.
  5. Focus primarily on net cash generation because accounting revenue is less relevant for an early-stage company.

Correct answer: C

Revenue depends on satisfying delivery obligations. Verify contract terms and work performed, then reconcile collections and cash outflows.

The information given does not establish how much revenue the company has earned.

A. Why this choice falls short

Signing a contract or collecting cash does not by itself establish earned revenue.

B. Why this choice falls short

Signing a contract or collecting cash does not by itself establish earned revenue.

D. Why this choice falls short

An audit improves assurance, but its absence does not prevent a supported analysis.

E. Why this choice falls short

$3.8m − $2.9m = $0.9m of customer cash surplus. It omits other cash flows and future delivery costs.

Related Week 3 deck

Deferred revenue

Medium (4/8)

W3-S117 · Source slide 117

A SaaS startup reports a $1.2 million net loss for the year. Its cash flow statement includes $400,000 of depreciation and amortization, $300,000 of stock-based compensation, a $500,000 increase in accounts receivable, and a $2.2 million increase in deferred revenue. The company also spent $1.5 million on capital expenditures during the year.

Most of the increase in deferred revenue resulted from customers paying annually in advance for subscription services that will be provided over the next 12 months.

The company reports positive operating cash flow of $1.2 million. Which interpretation is most accurate?

  1. Advance collections increased revenue and operating cash flow because customers had already paid the company.
  2. Deferred revenue increased operating cash flow because cash was collected before the related revenue was earned.
  3. Deferred revenue did not affect operating cash flow because it represents a noncash accounting liability.
  4. Positive operating cash flow shows the underlying business generated cash independently of customer prepayments.
  5. Capital expenditures should reduce operating cash flow because they support delivery of future subscription services.

Correct answer: B

Reconcile operating cash flow ($m)

Net loss −1.2 + D&A 0.4 + stock compensation 0.3 − receivables increase 0.5 + deferred revenue increase 2.2 = $1.2m operating cash flow

Before the $2.2m deferred revenue adjustment, the subtotal is −$1.0m. Customers still have services due to them.

A. Why this choice falls short

Advance cash can increase cash and a liability before revenue is earned.

C. Why this choice falls short

Advance cash can increase cash and a liability before revenue is earned.

D. Why this choice falls short

Positive operating cash flow does not establish independence from prepayments.

E. Why this choice falls short

Capex is an investing outflow. Operating cash flow less capex: $1.2m − $1.5m = −$0.3m.

Related Week 3 deck

Deferred revenue

Medium (5/8)

W3-S119 · Source slide 119

A SaaS company begins the year with $40,000 of deferred revenue. All customer consideration is collected before the related revenue is recognized. Assume there are no refunds or other contract liability adjustments.

At September 30, which statement is correct?

Q1Q2Q3
Cash collected$90,000$60,000$120,000
GAAP revenue recognized$70,000$80,000$95,000
  1. Deferred revenue is $25,000 because cash collections exceeded revenue by $25,000 year to date
  2. Deferred revenue remains $40,000 because cash collections do not affect revenue recognition
  3. Deferred revenue is $65,000, and year-to-date cash collections exceed GAAP revenue by $25,000
  4. Deferred revenue is $65,000, and year-to-date GAAP revenue exceeds cash collections by $25,000
  5. Deferred revenue is $90,000 because only Q3 activity determines the September 30 balance

Correct answer: C

Total cash collected = $90,000 + $60,000 + $120,000 = $270,000. Revenue recognized = $70,000 + $80,000 + $95,000 = $245,000. Ending deferred revenue = $40,000 + $270,000 − $245,000 = $65,000. Cash collections exceed recognized revenue by $25,000 year to date.

A. Why this choice falls short

$25,000 is the increase during the year. Adding the opening $40,000 liability gives an ending balance of $65,000.

B. Why this choice falls short

Collections do not by themselves earn revenue, but advance collections increase the contract liability. Recognizing revenue then reduces it.

D. Why this choice falls short

The ending liability is correct, but the direction of the difference is reversed: collections exceed revenue by $25,000.

E. Why this choice falls short

The September balance includes the opening liability and all three quarters. A balance-sheet amount is not determined by Q3 alone.

Related Week 3 deck

Discounted prepayments

Hard (6/8)

W3-S121 · Source slide 121

A company normally charges $100,000 per year for three years, payable at the end of each year. It offers a customer a 20% discount to prepay the entire three-year contract at signing, resulting in an immediate cash payment of $240,000.

The company can reinvest available cash in a business unit expected to earn 25% annually. Assume 25% represents the appropriate opportunity cost of capital. Ignore taxes and operating costs.

What is the approximate incremental NPV of accepting the prepaid contract rather than collecting $100,000 annually?

  1. $(60,000)
  2. $0
  3. $15,000
  4. $44,800
  5. $87,500

Correct answer: D

The present value of annual receipts is $100,000/1.25 + $100,000/1.25² + $100,000/1.25³ = $195,200. Prepayment is $240,000 today, so incremental NPV = $240,000 − $195,200 = +$44,800. The 25% opportunity cost captures the value of timing; do not add a separate reinvestment return to the discounted comparison.

A. Why this choice falls short

Negative $60,000 compares the $240,000 prepayment with $300,000 of undiscounted annual receipts. It ignores the timing benefit.

B. Why this choice falls short

The two options are not equal in present value: $240,000 today exceeds the $195,200 PV of annual receipts.

C. Why this choice falls short

$15,000 does not equal the difference between today's prepayment and the discounted value of all three year-end receipts.

E. Why this choice falls short

$87,500 overstates the benefit. Discount each annual receipt at 25%; the present-value difference is $44,800.

Related Week 3 deck

Free cash flow to the firm

Medium (4/8)

W3-S123 · Source slide 123

A company reports EBIT of $5.0 million, a 25% tax rate, $700,000 of depreciation and amortization, and $1.4 million of capital expenditures. During the year, accounts receivable increased by $900,000, inventory increased by $400,000, and accounts payable increased by $500,000.

Assume these are the only changes in operating working capital. What is the company’s FCFF?

  1. $3.85 million
  2. $3.05 million
  3. $2.25 million
  4. $1.75 million
  5. $1.25 million

Correct answer: C

Working capital uses cash ($m)

Increase = receivables + inventory − payables = 0.9 + 0.4 − 0.5 = $0.8m

FCFF = EBIT × (1 − tax rate) + D&A − capex − increase in operating working capital

= 5.0 × 0.75 + 0.7 − 1.4 − 0.8 = $2.25m

A. Why this choice falls short

$3.85m: Adds the $0.8m working capital increase instead of subtracting it.

B. Why this choice falls short

$3.05m: Ignores working capital.

D. Why this choice falls short

$1.75m: Omits the cash benefit of the $0.5m increase in payables.

E. Why this choice falls short

$1.25m: Treats the increase in payables as a cash use.

Related Week 3 deck

Revenue to cash collections

Medium (3/8)

P006 · New quantitative practice

A startup recognizes $1,650,000 of credit revenue during the year. Accounts receivable rises from $310,000 to $455,000. Customers make no advance payments, and there are no write-offs, refunds, cash sales, or foreign-exchange effects. The company also raises $600,000 of equity during the year. How much cash was collected from customers?

  1. $2,105,000
  2. $1,505,000
  3. $1,795,000
  4. $1,195,000
  5. $1,650,000

Correct answer: B

Collections = beginning A/R + credit revenue − ending A/R = 310,000 + 1,650,000 − 455,000 = $1,505,000. The equity issue is a financing cash flow.

A. Why this choice falls short

This incorrectly includes financing cash in customer collections.

C. Why this choice falls short

This adds the increase in receivables; the increase represents revenue not yet collected.

D. Why this choice falls short

This omits collections of beginning accounts receivable.

E. Why this choice falls short

This equates recognized revenue with collections and ignores the receivables increase.

Related Week 3 deck

Deferred revenue after a customer refund

Medium (3/8)

P007 · New quantitative practice

Opening deferred revenue is $75,000. Customers pay $460,000 in advance during the year, and the company recognizes $395,000 of revenue from those contracts and the opening deferred-revenue balance. It also refunds $18,000 for services never delivered; this refund reduces deferred revenue and does not reverse recognized revenue. There are no receivables or other adjustments. What is closing deferred revenue?

  1. −$8,000
  2. $158,000
  3. $47,000
  4. $140,000
  5. $122,000

Correct answer: E

Closing deferred revenue = opening balance + advance cash collected − revenue earned − refunded unearned amounts = 75,000 + 460,000 − 395,000 − 18,000 = $122,000.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the effects of cash collection and revenue recognition.

B. Why this choice falls short

This adds the refund when the refund should reduce the liability.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the opening deferred-revenue balance.

D. Why this choice falls short

This omits the refund of an unearned customer payment.

Related Week 3 deck

Operating cash flow from the indirect method

Medium (4/8)

P008 · New quantitative practice

All amounts are in millions. A startup reports net income of -1.40, depreciation of 0.45, and noncash stock compensation of 0.30. Accounts receivable increases by 0.55, accounts payable by 0.20, and deferred revenue by 1.65. These are the only noncash adjustments and operating working-capital changes. The company also pays 0.90 for equipment. What is operating cash flow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. −$1.00 million
  2. $0.35 million
  3. $1.75 million
  4. −$0.25 million
  5. $0.65 million

Correct answer: E

OCF = -1.40 + 0.45 + 0.30 − 0.55 + 0.20 + 1.65 = $0.65 million. Equipment spending is reported separately in investing cash flow. Positive OCF here partly reflects advance customer collections.

A. Why this choice falls short

This omits cash collected before revenue recognition, reflected in the deferred-revenue increase.

B. Why this choice falls short

This fails to add back noncash stock compensation included in net income.

C. Why this choice falls short

This adds an increase in receivables instead of subtracting it.

D. Why this choice falls short

This deducts equipment purchases from operating cash flow; they are investing cash flows.

Related Week 3 deck

Revenue to cash collections

Medium (3/8)

P018 · New quantitative practice

A startup recognizes $2,140,000 of credit revenue during the year. Accounts receivable rises from $420,000 to $565,000. Customers make no advance payments, and there are no write-offs, refunds, cash sales, or foreign-exchange effects. The company also raises $600,000 of equity during the year. How much cash was collected from customers?

  1. $2,140,000
  2. $2,595,000
  3. $2,285,000
  4. $1,995,000
  5. $1,575,000

Correct answer: D

Collections = beginning A/R + credit revenue − ending A/R = 420,000 + 2,140,000 − 565,000 = $1,995,000. The equity issue is a financing cash flow.

A. Why this choice falls short

This equates recognized revenue with collections and ignores the receivables increase.

B. Why this choice falls short

This incorrectly includes financing cash in customer collections.

C. Why this choice falls short

This adds the increase in receivables; the increase represents revenue not yet collected.

E. Why this choice falls short

This omits collections of beginning accounts receivable.

Related Week 3 deck

Deferred revenue after a customer refund

Medium (3/8)

P019 · New quantitative practice

Opening deferred revenue is $92,000. Customers pay $580,000 in advance during the year, and the company recognizes $510,000 of revenue from those contracts and the opening deferred-revenue balance. It also refunds $22,000 for services never delivered; this refund reduces deferred revenue and does not reverse recognized revenue. There are no receivables or other adjustments. What is closing deferred revenue?

  1. $184,000
  2. $48,000
  3. $162,000
  4. $0
  5. $140,000

Correct answer: E

Closing deferred revenue = opening balance + advance cash collected − revenue earned − refunded unearned amounts = 92,000 + 580,000 − 510,000 − 22,000 = $140,000.

A. Why this choice falls short

This adds the refund when the refund should reduce the liability.

B. Why this choice falls short

This omits the opening deferred-revenue balance.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the refund of an unearned customer payment.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the effects of cash collection and revenue recognition.

Related Week 3 deck

Operating cash flow from the indirect method

Medium (4/8)

P020 · New quantitative practice

All amounts are in millions. A startup reports net income of -1.70, depreciation of 0.60, and noncash stock compensation of 0.40. Accounts receivable increases by 0.65, accounts payable by 0.25, and deferred revenue by 2.00. These are the only noncash adjustments and operating working-capital changes. The company also pays 0.90 for equipment. What is operating cash flow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $0.50 million
  2. −$1.10 million
  3. −$0.00 million
  4. $2.20 million
  5. $0.90 million

Correct answer: E

OCF = -1.70 + 0.60 + 0.40 − 0.65 + 0.25 + 2.00 = $0.90 million. Equipment spending is reported separately in investing cash flow. Positive OCF here partly reflects advance customer collections.

A. Why this choice falls short

This fails to add back noncash stock compensation included in net income.

B. Why this choice falls short

This omits cash collected before revenue recognition, reflected in the deferred-revenue increase.

C. Why this choice falls short

This deducts equipment purchases from operating cash flow; they are investing cash flows.

D. Why this choice falls short

This adds an increase in receivables instead of subtracting it.

Related Week 3 deck

Present value of beginning-of-year payments

Medium (4/8)

P027 · New quantitative practice

A startup signs a 4-year equipment lease requiring $72,000 at the beginning of each year. The first payment is due today and the final payment is due at time 3. Use a 10% effective annual discount rate. Ignore tax effects, residual values, deposits, and all other costs. What is the present value of the lease payments, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. $228,230
  2. $171,473
  3. $276,159
  4. $251,053
  5. $288,000

Correct answer: D

This is an annuity due. PV = 72,000 × [1 − (1 + 0.1)^(−4)] / 0.1 × (1 + 0.1) = $251,053. On a financial calculator, use beginning-of-period mode or multiply an ordinary-annuity PV by 1 + r.

A. Why this choice falls short

This treats the payments as occurring at year-end instead of year-beginning.

B. Why this choice falls short

This discounts an already calculated present value a second time.

C. Why this choice falls short

This moves the payments two periods earlier rather than one.

E. Why this choice falls short

This adds nominal payments without discounting.

Related Week 3 deck

Monthly reserve deposits for a future obligation

Medium (4/8)

P028 · New quantitative practice

A startup needs $240,000 exactly 24 months from today to meet a planned equipment payment. It currently has no money set aside for this obligation. It will make equal deposits at each month-end into an account earning a nominal annual rate of 6.0%, compounded monthly. The last deposit is made on the payment date. What monthly deposit is required, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. $10,637
  2. $10,000
  3. $4,723
  4. $9,437
  5. $9,390

Correct answer: D

Monthly interest rate = 0.060/12 = 0.0050. FV = deposit × [((1+r)^24 − 1)/r]. Therefore deposit = 240,000 × 0.0050/[(1+0.0050)^24−1] = $9,437. Use END mode.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses a present-value annuity factor for a future accumulation target.

B. Why this choice falls short

This ignores interest earned on earlier deposits.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses the annual rate as the monthly rate.

E. Why this choice falls short

This assumes beginning-of-month deposits rather than the stated month-end deposits.

Related Week 3 deck

Present value of beginning-of-year payments

Medium (4/8)

P033 · New quantitative practice

A startup signs a 5-year equipment lease requiring $84,000 at the beginning of each year. The first payment is due today and the final payment is due at time 4. Use a 12% effective annual discount rate. Ignore tax effects, residual values, deposits, and all other costs. What is the present value of the lease payments, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. $420,000
  2. $302,801
  3. $339,137
  4. $379,834
  5. $192,436

Correct answer: C

This is an annuity due. PV = 84,000 × [1 − (1 + 0.12)^(−5)] / 0.12 × (1 + 0.12) = $339,137. On a financial calculator, use beginning-of-period mode or multiply an ordinary-annuity PV by 1 + r.

A. Why this choice falls short

This adds nominal payments without discounting.

B. Why this choice falls short

This treats the payments as occurring at year-end instead of year-beginning.

D. Why this choice falls short

This moves the payments two periods earlier rather than one.

E. Why this choice falls short

This discounts an already calculated present value a second time.

Related Week 3 deck

Monthly reserve deposits for a future obligation

Medium (4/8)

P034 · New quantitative practice

A startup needs $360,000 exactly 30 months from today to meet a planned equipment payment. It currently has no money set aside for this obligation. It will make equal deposits at each month-end into an account earning a nominal annual rate of 7.2%, compounded monthly. The last deposit is made on the payment date. What monthly deposit is required, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. $12,000
  2. $3,676
  3. $10,988
  4. $10,923
  5. $13,148

Correct answer: C

Monthly interest rate = 0.072/12 = 0.0060. FV = deposit × [((1+r)^30 − 1)/r]. Therefore deposit = 360,000 × 0.0060/[(1+0.0060)^30−1] = $10,988. Use END mode.

A. Why this choice falls short

This ignores interest earned on earlier deposits.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses the annual rate as the monthly rate.

D. Why this choice falls short

This assumes beginning-of-month deposits rather than the stated month-end deposits.

E. Why this choice falls short

This uses a present-value annuity factor for a future accumulation target.

Related Week 3 deck

Week 4: Driver-Based Forecasting and Financial Modeling

Compound growth

Easy (2/8)

W4-S006 · Source slide 6

An employee earning $40,000 wants to reach $200,000 in 10 years. What annual rate must they sustain?

  1. About 40%, since income must multiply five times
  2. About 16%, the simple average of the raises
  3. About 50%, front-loaded in the early years
  4. About 17.5%, the compound annual growth rate
  5. About 10%, one-tenth of the total increase

Correct answer: D

($200,000 / $40,000) to the 1/10 power, minus 1, is about 17.5%.

KEY TAKEAWAY CAGR is the constant rate that links a start and an end value over n years.

Correct answer: D.

Case: Salary rises from $40,000 to $200,000 over ten years. Dividing the total percentage increase by ten ignores compounding.

A. Why this choice falls short

The total increase is 400%, but dividing it by ten gives a simple annual increment, not the compound rate needed to multiply income by five.

B. Why this choice falls short

A simple average does not link the beginning and ending salary. At 16% compounded for ten years, $40,000 reaches about $176,457, below the target.

C. Why this choice falls short

A sustained 50% rate would produce far more than $200,000. No front-loaded salary path is supplied.

E. Why this choice falls short

At 10% compounded for ten years, $40,000 reaches about $103,750. It does not increase fivefold.

Related Week 4 deck

TTM revenue

Easy (2/8)

W4-S010 · Source slide 10

Last fiscal-year revenue was $4.2 million. Current year-to-date revenue is $1.6 million, and revenue for the comparable prior-year year-to-date period was $1.1 million. What is trailing-twelve-month revenue?

  1. $4.7 million.
  2. $5.3 million.
  3. $5.8 million.
  4. $6.9 million.
  5. $7.0 million.

Correct answer: A

$4.2M + $1.6M − $1.1M = $4.7M. Remove the old overlapping period and add the new one.

CFI: trailing twelve months

B. Why this choice falls short

$5.3 million adds the old $1.1 million period to the full prior fiscal year, double-counting old revenue rather than substituting current revenue.

C. Why this choice falls short

$5.8 million adds current YTD to the full prior year without removing the overlapping prior-year YTD period.

D. Why this choice falls short

$6.9 million adds all three figures. The prior YTD figure must be subtracted, not added.

E. Why this choice falls short

The relevant rolling twelve months equal $4.2 million − $1.1 million + $1.6 million = $4.7 million, not $7.0 million.

Related Week 4 deck

TTM and recurring run rate

Hard (6/8)

W4-S013 · Source slide 13

At September 30, a startup is preparing an investor update using these revenue figures:

Reporting periodRevenue
Full prior calendar year$5.70 million
January–September of the prior year$3.90 million
January–September of the current year$5.10 million

September's recognized revenue is $780,000. That amount includes $180,000 from a one-time implementation project and $600,000 of recurring subscription revenue. Management forecasts $9.40 million of revenue for the next 12 months.

For this comparison, include one-time items in historical trailing-twelve-month (TTM) total revenue. Base the recurring annualized run rate only on September's recurring revenue.

What are TTM total revenue through September 30 and the recurring annualized run rate at that date?

  1. TTM total revenue: $6.72 million; recurring annualized run rate: $7.20 million.
  2. TTM total revenue: $6.90 million; recurring annualized run rate: $7.20 million.
  3. TTM total revenue: $6.90 million; recurring annualized run rate: $9.36 million.
  4. TTM total revenue: $6.90 million; recurring annualized run rate: $9.40 million.
  5. TTM total revenue: $10.80 million; recurring annualized run rate: $7.20 million.

Correct answer: B

TTM total revenue = $5.70m + $5.10m − $3.90m = $6.90m. Recurring annualized run rate = ($0.780m − $0.180m) × 12 = $7.20m. Historical total revenue includes the earned one-time project, while the specified recurring run rate excludes it. Neither calculation uses the NTM forecast.

A. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the implementation project from historical TTM even though the question requests unnormalized total revenue.

C. Why this choice falls short

Annualizes all $780,000 of September revenue, including the one-time $180,000 project.

D. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes management's NTM forecast for the requested recurring annualized run rate.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds the full prior year to current YTD without subtracting the overlapping prior-year YTD period.

Related Week 4 deck

Operating drivers

Easy (1/8)

W4-S018 · Source slide 18

Which approach provides the strongest operating foundation for a driver-based revenue forecast?

  1. Revenue grows 250% because management believes that growth rate is necessary to support the next financing valuation.
  2. Bookings are built from productive sales capacity, qualified opportunities, conversion rates, deal size, and timing assumptions.
  3. Revenue equals 2% of TAM because capturing a small share of a large market is a conservative assumption.
  4. Revenue is set equal to the amount required for the company to reach breakeven by the end of the forecast period.
  5. Revenue grows at the industry growth rate because individual company execution is too uncertain to model directly.

Correct answer: B

B supplies testable operating assumptions. Then reconcile bookings to delivery, recognized revenue, and collections. The other choices start with an outcome or broad growth proxy.

A. Why this choice falls short

A financing valuation target states a desired outcome; it does not establish the operating capacity or customer demand needed to earn that revenue.

C. Why this choice falls short

A small percentage of a large market is not inherently attainable. The forecast still needs customer acquisition, capacity, price, and timing assumptions.

D. Why this choice falls short

Setting revenue to the break-even requirement reverses the analysis. Operating drivers should determine whether break-even is feasible.

E. Why this choice falls short

An industry growth rate can provide context, but it cannot replace the company's own capacity, conversion, pricing, and retention assumptions.

Related Week 4 deck

Customer additions and churn

Easy (1/8)

W4-S021 · Source slide 21

Scenario: A subscription business is preparing next year’s revenue forecast. Management expects to begin the year with 8,000 customers, add 500 customers per month, lose 2% of customers each month, and earn an average of $40 per customer per month. Which approach best reflects driver-based forecasting?

  1. Increase last year’s revenue by management’s expected overall growth rate.
  2. Use the average revenue growth rate from the prior three years.
  3. Forecast revenue from customer additions, churn, and revenue per customer.
  4. Use the most recent month’s revenue and annualize it for twelve months.
  5. Forecast revenue equal to the midpoint of management’s historical guidance range.

Correct answer: C

Track each month’s opening customers, additions, and losses. Apply revenue per customer using a stated billing and service-timing convention. A single growth percentage hides those drivers.

A. Why this choice falls short

An overall growth percentage conceals how additions and churn change the active customer base each month.

B. Why this choice falls short

A historical average does not model the stated opening base, new customers, losses, or revenue per customer.

D. Why this choice falls short

Annualizing one month assumes it repeats and ignores the projected additions and compounding customer losses.

E. Why this choice falls short

The midpoint of guidance is an outcome estimate, not a forecast built from the stated operating drivers.

Related Week 4 deck

Profit and cash

Easy (0/8)

W4-S028 · Source slide 28

Among the eleven guidelines, why does the module insist on always building a cash flow model?

  1. Because the income statement is not allowed in a model
  2. Because cash flow replaces the need for revenue forecasts
  3. Because a profitable company can still run out of cash
  4. Because investors never read the income statement
  5. Because cash flow is easier to forecast than expenses

Correct answer: C

Profit on paper does not guarantee cash; the cash flow model shows whether the business survives.

KEY TAKEAWAY The income statement shows profitability. The cash forecast shows whether the company can meet payments as they come due.

Correct answer: C.

SEC: financial statements

A. Why this choice falls short

An integrated model uses both the income statement and the cash forecast. They answer different questions.

B. Why this choice falls short

Cash collections and other cash flows still depend on revenue drivers, billing terms, costs, and timing.

D. Why this choice falls short

Investors use income statements to assess earnings and economics. The cash forecast adds information about liquidity.

E. Why this choice falls short

Cash is not necessarily easier to forecast. A cash model is necessary because payment timing can threaten survival even when earnings are positive.

Related Week 4 deck

Model structure

Medium (4/8)

W4-S030 · Source slide 30

A founder builds a five-year model using annual revenue growth assumptions, hard-coded formulas, and a single base case. The model shows accounting profit, but does not separately forecast cash balances or operating drivers. Which change would most improve the model?

  1. Add more expense line items so the model appears more detailed.
  2. Extend the forecast to ten years to show a longer strategic horizon.
  3. Build monthly cash flow from operating drivers and centralized assumptions.
  4. Increase the revenue growth rate to better reflect management’s ambition.
  5. Replace the base case with an upside case to show investor potential.

Correct answer: C

ICAEW: Financial Modelling Code

C connects operating assumptions to cash and exposes the financing need. Extra line items, a longer horizon, or more optimistic growth cannot repair the missing logic.

A. Why this choice falls short

More expense categories add detail without connecting operating activity to cash or fixing hard-coded assumptions.

B. Why this choice falls short

A longer horizon extends the same weak logic. It does not reveal near-term cash needs.

D. Why this choice falls short

Greater ambition changes an assumption without validating the drivers or modeling liquidity.

E. Why this choice falls short

An upside case alone removes downside visibility and still leaves cash and driver relationships unresolved.

Related Week 4 deck

Sales ramp

Easy (1/8)

W4-S037 · Source slide 37

Practice convention

For this classroom model, assume no sales during the 90-day ramp and use April as the first fully productive month for a January hire.

A rep is hired in January with a 90-day time to productivity. When does the model credit that rep with sales?

  1. Immediately in January, on the start date
  2. Never, until the rep is formally promoted
  3. In February, after one full month on the job
  4. Around April, once the ramp period has passed
  5. Only at the very end of the fiscal year

Correct answer: D

With a 90-day ramp, a January hire is credited with sales around April.

KEY TAKEAWAY Employment costs begin when the rep starts. Bookings capacity builds as the rep ramps, while delivery and collection timing determine revenue and cash.

Correct answer: D.

Case: A January hire has a 90-day ramp. The classroom model uses April as the first full productive month and assumes no sales during ramp. Recognition and collection may occur later.

Dave Lishego: The Founder’s Guide to Financial Modeling, © 2019

A. Why this choice falls short

The model begins salary costs when employment starts, but the stated ramp delays productive selling capacity.

B. Why this choice falls short

Promotion is not the productivity condition supplied in the question; completion of the ramp is.

C. Why this choice falls short

One month is shorter than the stated 90-day ramp, so February is too early under these assumptions.

E. Why this choice falls short

The ramp ends around April; waiting until fiscal year-end would omit productive months.

Related Week 4 deck

Sales ramp and revenue

Hard (7/8)

W4-S039 · Source slide 39

A SaaS company is forecasting first-quarter bookings and revenue. Its sales team has two groups:

Experienced representatives: Three representatives each close two annual contracts per month in January, February, and March.

New representatives: Two representatives join on February 1. They close no contracts in February. In March, each closes contracts at 50% of the experienced representatives' monthly rate.

Every contract has a $24,000 annual value. Contracts close at month-end, and customers pay the full amount immediately. Service begins on the first day of the following month, with revenue earned evenly over the next 12 months.

Assume no existing contracts, discounts, or cancellations.

What are total first-quarter bookings and recognized revenue?

  1. Bookings of $480,000 and recognized revenue of $36,000.
  2. Bookings of $480,000 and recognized revenue of $76,000.
  3. Bookings of $480,000 and recognized revenue of $480,000.
  4. Bookings of $528,000 and recognized revenue of $36,000.
  5. Bookings of $624,000 and recognized revenue of $44,000.

Correct answer: A

Experienced reps close 3 × 2 × 3 = 18 contracts. New reps add 2 × (2 × 50%) = 2 in March, for 20 contracts and $480,000 bookings. Each contract earns $2,000 monthly. January's six contracts earn two months in Q1: $24,000. February's six earn one month: $12,000. March's eight begin service in April. Q1 revenue = $36,000.

B. Why this choice falls short

Starts revenue in the closing month, yielding $12,000 in January, $24,000 in February, and $40,000 in March.

C. Why this choice falls short

Equates upfront cash collections with revenue earned during the first quarter.

D. Why this choice falls short

Gives the new representatives full March productivity rather than 50%. Those extra March bookings would still begin service in April.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats both new representatives as fully productive in both February and March, producing 6, 10, and 10 monthly contracts.

Related Week 4 deck

Annual churn

Easy (2/8)

W4-S043 · Source slide 43

Practice convention

Apply 2% monthly churn to the customers remaining from the starting cohort, with no additions to that cohort.

A subscription business has 2% monthly churn. Roughly how much of its base does it lose in a year?

  1. About 2%
  2. About 22%
  3. About 6%
  4. About 50%
  5. About 24%

Correct answer: B

Retaining 98% each month, (0.98) to the 12th power, loses about 22% over the year.

KEY TAKEAWAY Monthly churn compounds. 2% monthly is roughly 22% a year, not 24%.

Correct answer: B.

Case: Monthly churn is 2% of the remaining starting cohort. Annual loss = 1 − 0.98^12 = 21.53%. The 24% answer adds rates instead of compounding retention.

A. Why this choice falls short

2% is one month's loss, not the cumulative loss across twelve months.

C. Why this choice falls short

About 6% approximates three months of churn, not a full year.

D. Why this choice falls short

A 50% annual loss is much larger than the 21.53% produced by 2% monthly churn.

E. Why this choice falls short

24% adds twelve monthly rates. Churn applies to a shrinking cohort: annual loss is 1 − 0.98^12 ≈ 21.53%.

Related Week 4 deck

Forecast revenue, receivables, and cash

Hard (6/8)

W4-S050 · Source slide 50

A monthly forecast starts with $80,000 cash and $30,000 receivables. Credit sales are $120,000, collections are $95,000, and cash operating expenses are $70,000. Equipment costs $40,000 cash; monthly depreciation is $4,000. There are no other accruals, taxes, or financing flows.

Which forecast is internally consistent?

  1. Profit $46,000; ending receivables $55,000; ending cash $65,000.
  2. Profit $46,000; ending receivables $55,000; ending cash $61,000.
  3. Profit $46,000; ending receivables $25,000; ending cash $65,000.
  4. Profit $6,000; ending receivables $55,000; ending cash $65,000.
  5. Profit $46,000; ending receivables $55,000; ending cash $90,000.

Correct answer: A

Profit = $120,000 − $70,000 − $4,000 = $46,000. Receivables = $30,000 + $120,000 − $95,000 = $55,000.

Operating cash = $46,000 + $4,000 − $25,000 = $25,000. Ending cash = $80,000 + $25,000 − $40,000 = $65,000.

B. Why this choice falls short

Deducts depreciation from cash again.

C. Why this choice falls short

Omits opening receivables.

D. Why this choice falls short

Expenses CapEx in addition to depreciation.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats credit sales as collections.

Related Week 4 deck

Runway

Easy (2/8)

W4-S055 · Source slide 55

Practice convention

Assume all $900,000 is usable, monthly net burn remains $150,000, and no minimum reserve or other cash movements apply.

A startup holds $900,000 in cash and burns $150,000 net per month. What is its runway?

  1. 3 months
  2. 9 months
  3. 12 months
  4. 15 months
  5. 6 months

Correct answer: E

$900,000 divided by $150,000 per month equals 6 months.

KEY TAKEAWAY Runway equals current cash divided by monthly net burn.

Correct answer: E.

Case: $900,000 usable cash and constant $150,000 monthly net burn. Six months is time to zero, assuming no other cash movements. A required cash floor would shorten the operating window.

A. Why this choice falls short

Three months uses $450,000 and leaves half the available cash.

B. Why this choice falls short

Nine months at this burn requires $1.35 million, more than the available $900,000.

C. Why this choice falls short

Twelve months requires $1.8 million, twice the available cash.

D. Why this choice falls short

Fifteen months requires $2.25 million, exceeding cash by $1.35 million.

Related Week 4 deck

A delayed collection

Medium (4/8)

W4-S058 · Source slide 58

Practice convention

Assume no other March receipts and that financing or an agreed payment deferral is available before the affected payments fall due.

A startup begins March with $160,000 of cash and requires a $50,000 minimum cash balance. A $140,000 customer collection expected in March moves to April, while March payroll and vendor payments of $210,000 remain unchanged. Management also wants to spend $25,000 on a discretionary growth experiment in March. What minimum additional financing or cost deferral is required to maintain the cash floor and complete the experiment?

  1. $75,000.
  2. $100,000.
  3. $125,000.
  4. $140,000.
  5. $235,000.

Correct answer: C

March ending cash before action: $160K − $210K − $25K = −$75K. Reaching the $50K floor requires $125K. Assume no other March receipts and timely funding or payment deferral.

A. Why this choice falls short

$75,000 covers the cash deficit only to zero. The company also requires a $50,000 ending cash floor.

B. Why this choice falls short

$100,000 funds required payroll and vendor payments while preserving the floor, but does not fund the additional $25,000 experiment.

D. Why this choice falls short

$140,000 is the delayed collection amount. The actual required bridge depends on opening cash, outflows, and the cash floor, yielding $125,000.

E. Why this choice falls short

$235,000 is total March spending. It ignores the $160,000 already available and does not directly solve for the $50,000 cash floor.

Related Week 4 deck

The lowest cash point

Hard (7/8)

W4-S061 · Source slide 61

A startup begins May with $220,000 of usable cash. Management wants to maintain at least $60,000 at the end of every month.

A $150,000 customer payment expected in May has been delayed until July. The updated forecast separates that payment from other receipts:

Cash itemMayJuneJuly
Other operating receipts$40,000$90,000$210,000
Delayed customer collection$0$0$150,000
Required cash payments$230,000$170,000$160,000

Management also plans to complete a $30,000 experiment in May. Its cost is additional to the required payments in the table. Monthly depreciation of $12,000 is a noncash expense and is not included in these cash payments.

Any new financing arrives before May's payments and is available throughout the forecast. Assume no financing fees, repayments, or other cash flows.

What is the smallest financing amount that allows the company to complete the experiment and maintain the $60,000 minimum at every month-end?

  1. $60,000.
  2. $80,000.
  3. $110,000.
  4. $140,000.
  5. $200,000.

Correct answer: D

Without financing: May ending cash = $220,000 + $40,000 − $230,000 − $30,000 = $0. June ending cash = $0 + $90,000 − $170,000 = −$80,000. July ending cash = −$80,000 + $210,000 + $150,000 − $160,000 = $120,000. The maximum floor shortfall is in June: $60,000 − (−$80,000) = $140,000. With that raise, month-end balances are $140,000, $60,000, and $260,000. Positive July cash does not eliminate the earlier financing need.

A. Why this choice falls short

Covers May's floor but ignores the additional $80,000 cash use in June.

B. Why this choice falls short

Brings the lowest projected balance to zero, rather than to the required $60,000 floor.

C. Why this choice falls short

Funds the cash floor while omitting the required $30,000 experiment from the scenario.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds a second $60,000 reserve to the $140,000 already sufficient to preserve the stated floor.

Related Week 4 deck

The gross funding request

Hard (6/8)

W4-S064 · Source slide 64

A startup is deciding how much capital to raise before its next milestone. Its forecast shows:

Usable opening cash of $430,000.

Cumulative net cash use of $1.48 million before reaching the milestone.

A required cash balance of at least $270,000 at the milestone.

The milestone is the lowest cash point in the forecast. There are no other financing sources, and the forecast excludes fundraising transaction costs.

At the financing closing, the company must pay a $40,000 legal bill and a placement fee equal to 4% of the gross amount raised. Both costs are paid from the proceeds.

What is the minimum gross amount the company needs to raise, rounded to the nearest $1,000?

  1. $1,320,000.
  2. $1,360,000.
  3. $1,375,000.
  4. $1,414,000.
  5. $1,417,000.

Correct answer: E

Required net proceeds = $1,480,000 + $270,000 − $430,000 = $1,320,000. If R is the gross raise, usable proceeds equal 0.96R − $40,000. Set 0.96R − $40,000 = $1,320,000. Thus R = $1,360,000 ÷ 0.96 = $1,416,666.67, rounding to $1,417,000. The stated low point means no larger interim shortfall must also be funded.

A. Why this choice falls short

Covers only net operating funding need and ignores both transaction costs.

B. Why this choice falls short

Adds the $40,000 legal bill but omits the 4% placement fee.

C. Why this choice falls short

Calculates $1,320,000 ÷ 96% but omits the fixed legal bill.

D. Why this choice falls short

Multiplies $1,360,000 by 1.04 instead of dividing by 0.96. The fee is 4% of gross proceeds, not a 4% markup on the required net amount.

Related Week 4 deck

Growth versus retention

Hard (6/8)

W4-S071 · Source slide 71

A SaaS company begins the quarter with $120,000 of monthly recurring revenue (MRR). During the quarter, it records the following changes:

Customer activityEffect on MRR
Expansions by customers present at the start of the quarterIncrease of $18,000
Cancellations by customers present at the start of the quarterDecrease of $22,000
Downgrades by customers present at the start of the quarterDecrease of $8,000
New customers acquired during the quarterIncrease of $52,000

The cancellation and downgrade amounts do not overlap. Assume no reactivations, foreign-exchange effects, or other changes.

Management argues that the increase in total MRR shows the existing customer base is becoming more valuable.

What are total MRR growth and net revenue retention (NRR), and what do they indicate about the customers present at the start of the quarter? Round both percentages to one decimal place.

  1. Total MRR growth: −10.0%; NRR: 90.0%; the starting cohort contracts.
  2. Total MRR growth: 33.3%; NRR: 75.0%; the starting cohort contracts.
  3. Total MRR growth: 33.3%; NRR: 90.0%; the starting cohort contracts.
  4. Total MRR growth: 33.3%; NRR: 133.3%; the starting cohort expands.
  5. Total MRR growth: 43.3%; NRR: 90.0%; the starting cohort contracts.

Correct answer: C

Starting-cohort ending MRR = $120,000 + $18,000 − $22,000 − $8,000 = $108,000. NRR = $108,000 ÷ $120,000 = 90%. Total ending MRR = $108,000 + $52,000 = $160,000. Total growth = $160,000 ÷ $120,000 − 1 = 33.3333%. New acquisitions mask contraction in the starting cohort. The results do not prove durable product-market fit.

A. Why this choice falls short

Applies the starting cohort's 10% decline to the entire company, excluding new customers. NRR and the cohort direction are correct.

B. Why this choice falls short

Omits the $18,000 expansion from NRR. The 75% figure is gross retention under these assumptions.

D. Why this choice falls short

Includes $52,000 from new customers in NRR, which must be limited to the starting cohort.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses new-customer MRR divided by starting MRR as total growth, without netting the $12,000 decline in the starting cohort. NRR and the cohort direction are correct.

Related Week 4 deck

Revenue-basis LTV

Easy (2/8)

W4-S073 · Source slide 73

Practice convention

Assume constant monthly ARPU and churn, no discounting or expansion, and use the standard ARPU/churn approximation. This is lifetime revenue before delivery costs and CAC.

A SaaS product earns $200 ARPU per month at 2% monthly churn. What is the revenue-basis LTV?

  1. $400
  2. $2,400
  3. $10,000
  4. $100
  5. $4,000

Correct answer: C

LTV equals ARPU divided by monthly churn: $200 / 0.02 = $10,000.

KEY TAKEAWAY On a revenue basis, LTV = ARPU / monthly churn rate.

Correct answer: C.

Assume constant monthly ARPU and churn. The $10,000 is undiscounted lifetime revenue; delivery costs and CAC have not been deducted.

ChartMogul: revenue-basis LTV

A. Why this choice falls short

$400 equals only two months of revenue. A 2% monthly churn rate implies a much longer expected customer lifetime.

B. Why this choice falls short

$2,400 is one year's revenue at $200 per month. Revenue-basis LTV includes the full expected lifetime.

D. Why this choice falls short

$100 divides $200 by 2, treating 2% as 2 rather than 0.02. Percentage conversion matters.

E. Why this choice falls short

$4,000 implies a 20-month lifetime, equivalent to 5% monthly churn under this model. Stated churn is 2%.

Related Week 4 deck

Stress-testing collection delays

Medium (4/8)

W4-S079 · Source slide 79

Before new financing, the forecast cash low point is $260,000 at June 30. The required cash floor is $100,000. A customer payment of $200,000 expected that day could slip to July 31. All other cash flows remain unchanged; without this delay, no other date is lower.

What is the June 30 effect, and the minimum additional cash needed to preserve the floor?

  1. Cash is $60,000; the company needs $100,000 of additional cash.
  2. Cash is $160,000; the company needs $0 of additional cash.
  3. Cash is $60,000; the company needs $160,000 of additional cash.
  4. Cash is $260,000; the company needs $0 of additional cash.
  5. Cash is $60,000; the company needs $40,000 of additional cash.

Correct answer: E

Delayed collection reduces June 30 cash to $260,000 − $200,000 = $60,000. Preserving the $100,000 floor requires $40,000.

The July receipt does not repair a June payment failure. Check July and all intervening dates before selecting a financing or spending response.

A. Why this choice falls short

Gives the entire floor.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats headroom as cash and ignores the delay.

C. Why this choice falls short

Confuses headroom with the remaining gap.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores timing.

Related Week 4 deck

Sensitivity and scenarios

Easy (0/8)

W4-S081 · Source slide 81

How does the one-variable sensitivity method used here differ from business scenario analysis?

  1. One-variable sensitivity isolates an input; a scenario tests a coherent set of assumptions
  2. Sensitivity is optional while scenario is legally required
  3. Sensitivity uses actuals; scenario uses only forecasts
  4. Sensitivity is for revenue; scenario is for expenses
  5. Sensitivity applies to startups; scenario to public firms

Correct answer: A

This sensitivity method changes one input while holding other independent assumptions fixed. A scenario combines assumptions describing a possible future.

KEY TAKEAWAY Sensitivity tests selected inputs. Scenarios evaluate internally consistent operating conditions and responses. Sensitivity tables can also vary two inputs.

Correct answer: A.

AFP: sensitivities and scenarios · Microsoft: one- and two-variable data tables

B. Why this choice falls short

Neither method is distinguished by a universal legal requirement. The difference here is which assumptions are varied together.

C. Why this choice falls short

Both methods can be applied to forecasts informed by actual results; they are not separated by actual versus forecast data.

D. Why this choice falls short

Both can test revenue, expenses, cash timing, and other drivers. They are not restricted to different statement categories.

E. Why this choice falls short

Startups and public companies can use both methods. Company stage does not define the distinction.

Related Week 4 deck

Timing variance

Easy (1/8)

W4-S084 · Source slide 84

A customer payment expected in March arrived in April. How should variance analysis classify this?

  1. A permanent variance requiring immediate strategic change
  2. A timing variance, right in direction but off in period
  3. An error that should be ignored as ordinary noise
  4. A signal that the customer has churned permanently
  5. A reason to abandon the current forecast entirely

Correct answer: B

The collection occurred in April instead of March. Update the cash schedule and assess whether the delay creates a March cash shortfall requiring financing or spending changes.

KEY TAKEAWAY Timing variance shifts an event between periods. A persistent operating variance changes the expected volume, price, cost, or retention. Both can change decisions.

Correct answer: B.

AFP: implementing rolling forecasts

A. Why this choice falls short

The stated cash receipt ultimately occurs, so the observed difference is timing. It does not by itself establish a permanent operating shortfall.

C. Why this choice falls short

A timing variance can create a real liquidity gap. Update the cash schedule rather than ignoring it.

D. Why this choice falls short

A one-month delay followed by payment is not evidence of permanent customer churn.

E. Why this choice falls short

Update the collection assumptions and funding response. One delay does not make the entire forecasting process useless.

Related Week 4 deck

Annualized run rate

Easy (1/8)

W4-S095 · Source slide 95

A SaaS company generated $1.5 million of revenue in its most recent month after launching a major new product. Management refers to a $18 million annual revenue run rate. Which statement best describes this figure?

  1. It represents the company’s actual revenue earned over the last twelve months.
  2. It assumes the latest monthly revenue continues for the next twelve months.
  3. It is more reliable than TTM revenue because it uses the most recent operating data.
  4. It adjusts recent revenue for seasonality before estimating annual performance.
  5. It represents the revenue management expects to recognize under signed contracts.

Correct answer: B

CFI: trailing twelve months

$1.5M × 12 = $18M. This extrapolates the latest month. It does not establish historical annual revenue, signed-contract revenue, or a seasonal adjustment.

A. Why this choice falls short

Actual revenue from the last twelve months is TTM revenue. Annualized run rate extrapolates a recent period.

C. Why this choice falls short

A recent month may be unusually strong after a launch. Recency alone does not make its extrapolation more reliable than historical revenue.

D. Why this choice falls short

Multiplying the latest month by twelve contains no seasonal adjustment unless an additional adjustment is explicitly made.

E. Why this choice falls short

Run rate does not establish which contracts have been signed or when their revenue will be recognized.

Related Week 4 deck

TTM, run rate, and NTM

Medium (4/8)

W4-S098 · Source slide 98

A startup reports TTM revenue of $3 million, a current annualized run-rate of $6 million based on its strongest recent month, and management NTM revenue of $9 million. What should an investor conclude from the spread before relying on the $9 million forecast?

  1. Use NTM as the primary basis because it incorporates management’s latest information, provided the assumptions are internally consistent.
  2. Use TTM as the primary basis because it is historical, treating run-rate and NTM only as secondary sensitivity cases.
  3. Average the three measures to reduce dependence on any single period and smooth the effect of recent volatility.
  4. Use run-rate as the primary basis because it reflects current momentum, then reconcile management’s NTM forecast to that annualized level.
  5. Treat the gap as an unproven inflection and test whether the recent spike and forward assumptions are repeatable.

Correct answer: E

CFI: trailing twelve months

Test whether the strongest month repeats and whether pipeline, capacity, and retention support $9M. Internal consistency or averaging cannot validate demand.

A. Why this choice falls short

An internally consistent NTM forecast can still rely on unsupported demand or capacity. Test the assumptions before choosing it as the main basis.

B. Why this choice falls short

TTM is useful historical evidence, but selecting it automatically does not investigate whether the new revenue level is durable.

C. Why this choice falls short

The three figures measure different periods and assumptions. Averaging them does not validate the forecast or remove the underlying uncertainty.

D. Why this choice falls short

Run rate extrapolates the strongest recent month. Using it as the anchor before testing repeatability may carry the same unsupported spike into the forecast.

Related Week 4 deck

Productive sales capacity

Medium (3/8)

W4-S101 · Source slide 101

Practice convention

Treat the 90-day ramp as the full first quarter, with no Q1 closes from the two new hires.

Four fully productive sales representatives each close three contracts per quarter at $20,000 per contract. Two additional representatives start on January 1 but require a 90-day ramp before they can close business. What bookings should the model attribute to the team during the first quarter?

  1. $120,000.
  2. $240,000.
  3. $280,000.
  4. $320,000.
  5. $360,000.

Correct answer: B

Dave Lishego: The Founder’s Guide to Financial Modeling, © 2019

4 productive reps × 3 contracts × $20,000 = $240,000. Assume the two new hires contribute no Q1 contracts. $360,000 would incorrectly credit all six reps at full productivity.

A. Why this choice falls short

$120,000 credits only six contracts. Four productive reps at three contracts each supply twelve contracts, or $240,000.

C. Why this choice falls short

$280,000 credits fourteen contracts, two more than the productive reps generate. The new hires contribute no Q1 closes under the stated convention.

D. Why this choice falls short

$320,000 credits sixteen contracts, exceeding the twelve supported by the productive team.

E. Why this choice falls short

$360,000 credits all six reps with full productivity. Two reps are still in their ramp period.

Related Week 4 deck

The cash buffer

Medium (3/8)

W4-S104 · Source slide 104

A startup projects $1.25 million of cumulative net burn before its next major milestone. It starts with $550,000 of cash and wants at least $300,000 remaining at the milestone. Management proposes raising $700,000 because current cash plus the raise equals projected burn. Which assessment is correct?

  1. The $700,000 raise is sufficient because current cash plus new capital covers projected burn, and the cash buffer can be rebuilt after the milestone.
  2. The company should raise $850,000 because the $300,000 buffer should be added to current cash before comparing available funds with projected burn.
  3. The company should raise $950,000 because only part of current cash should be considered available when planning for operating uncertainty.
  4. The company should raise $1.0 million because burn plus the desired ending buffer, less current cash, leaves a $1.0 million funding requirement.
  5. The company should raise $1.55 million because projected burn and the desired ending buffer should both be financed entirely with new capital.

Correct answer: D

$1.25M + $0.30M − $0.55M = $1.00M. Raising $0.70M leaves zero cash. The $1.55M choice ignores the $0.55M already available.

A. Why this choice falls short

A $700,000 raise leaves zero cash after the milestone spending. It fails the required $300,000 reserve.

B. Why this choice falls short

The cash buffer is a required ending balance, not an additional source of cash. At an $850,000 raise, only $150,000 would remain.

C. Why this choice falls short

The scenario does not authorize an arbitrary partial use of existing cash. Raising $950,000 leaves $250,000, below the $300,000 target.

E. Why this choice falls short

$1.55 million funds burn plus reserve without using the $550,000 of cash already available, overstating new funding needed.

Related Week 4 deck

Growth and cohort retention

Medium (4/8)

W4-S107 · Source slide 107

A subscription startup reports 40% year-over-year revenue growth, but each new customer cohort loses roughly half of its recurring revenue within 12 months. Management argues that aggregate growth proves durable product-market fit. What should an analyst examine next?

  1. The total market size, because a sufficiently large TAM can offset weak retention for an extended period.
  2. The latest month’s revenue, because run-rate growth is more important than historical cohort behavior.
  3. The number of website visitors, because stronger top-of-funnel activity is the clearest test of customer value.
  4. The company’s gross margin, because positive gross margin is sufficient to demonstrate that retention is economically sustainable.
  5. Cohort retention and the acquisition cost required to replace lost recurring revenue, because new sales may be masking customer decay.

Correct answer: E

E tests whether acquisition spending masks weak recurring-revenue retention. TAM, website traffic, aggregate growth, and positive gross margin cannot independently establish durable customer economics.

A. Why this choice falls short

A large addressable market does not show that replacing lost customers is economical or that customer value persists.

B. Why this choice falls short

A strong month can coexist with weak retention. Annualizing it does not examine the decay in earlier cohorts.

C. Why this choice falls short

Website traffic measures attention, not whether paying customers remain or generate enough contribution to cover acquisition costs.

D. Why this choice falls short

Gross margin omits acquisition economics and retention duration. Positive gross margin alone cannot establish sustainable lifetime value.

Related Week 4 deck

TTM EBITDA

Medium (3/8)

W4-S111 · Source slide 111

A company’s fiscal year ended December 31, 2025. Through June 30, 2026, it reports year-to-date EBITDA of $7.0 million. EBITDA for the first six months of 2025 was $5.5 million, and full-year 2025 EBITDA was $12.0 million. What is TTM EBITDA as of June 30, 2026?

  1. $7.0 million
  2. $12.0 million
  3. $13.5 million
  4. $14.0 million
  5. $19.0 million

Correct answer: C

CFI: trailing twelve months

$12.0M − $5.5M + $7.0M = $13.5M. The result covers July 2025 through June 2026 using a consistent EBITDA definition.

A. Why this choice falls short

$7.0 million is current YTD EBITDA, only six months rather than the requested trailing twelve months.

B. Why this choice falls short

$12.0 million is the prior full fiscal year. It has not been updated for the latest six months.

D. Why this choice falls short

$14.0 million doubles current YTD EBITDA. That is an extrapolation, not the actual trailing-twelve-month measure.

E. Why this choice falls short

$19.0 million adds current YTD to the entire prior year without removing the overlapping $5.5 million prior YTD period.

Related Week 4 deck

Customers lost to churn

Easy (2/8)

W4-S114 · Source slide 114

A subscription business starts the year with 1,000 customers and has 2% monthly churn. Assuming no new customers are added, approximately how many of the original customers will be lost after 12 months?

  1. About 20
  2. About 215
  3. About 60
  4. About 500
  5. About 240

Correct answer: B

1,000 × (1 − 0.98^12) = 215.28, or about 215 customers lost. About 785 remain. The 240 answer assumes a fixed loss of 20 every month.

A. Why this choice falls short

Twenty customers is the first month's loss only. Churn continues over the remaining eleven months.

C. Why this choice falls short

About sixty approximates three months at the opening loss rate. It does not cover the full twelve-month period.

D. Why this choice falls short

Losing half the starting cohort would require a higher monthly churn rate. At 2%, about 785 of the original 1,000 remain.

E. Why this choice falls short

240 assumes a fixed loss of twenty customers every month. The 2% rate applies to a shrinking remaining cohort, producing about 215 losses.

Related Week 4 deck

Financing need

Easy (2/8)

W4-S116 · Source slide 116

Practice convention

Assume the stated cash is usable, the milestone is the lowest cash point, and there are no financing fees or other cash flows.

Cumulative net burn to the milestone is $1.8M, minimum cash is $0.45M, and cash on hand is $0.8M. What is the financing need?

  1. $1.45 million
  2. $2.60 million
  3. $1.00 million
  4. $1.15 million
  5. $0.55 million

Correct answer: A

Cumulative net burn plus minimum cash minus cash on hand: 1.8 + 0.45 - 0.8 = $1.45M.

KEY TAKEAWAY Financing need = cumulative net burn to the milestone + minimum cash - cash on hand.

Correct answer: A.

Case: $1.8M net cash use, $0.45M required ending cash, and $0.8M available now. The $1.45M raise leaves exactly $0.45M. Assume no earlier low point or other financing.

B. Why this choice falls short

$2.60 million adds opening cash to burn. Existing cash is a funding source and should reduce the new money required.

C. Why this choice falls short

$1.00 million covers burn net of existing cash but leaves no $450,000 minimum reserve.

D. Why this choice falls short

$1.15 million would leave $150,000 at the milestone, below the required $450,000.

E. Why this choice falls short

$550,000 would leave a $450,000 cash deficit. The minimum cash balance is added to funding needs, not subtracted.

Related Week 4 deck

Gross raise required at the cash trough

Hard (7/8)

P010 · New quantitative practice

All amounts are in millions. A startup has unrestricted cash of 0.42 today. Its four quarterly net cash flows before financing are -0.28, -0.38, +0.14, -0.32, respectively. The company must maintain at least 0.20 at every quarter-end and today. A financing closes today with an issuance fee of 4% of gross proceeds deducted immediately. No other cash flows occur. What gross raise is required, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $0.65 million
  2. $0.79 million
  3. $0.06 million
  4. $0.62 million
  5. $0.60 million

Correct answer: A

Without financing, quarter-end balances are 0.14, -0.24, -0.10, -0.42 million. The lowest is -0.42. Net new cash needed = 0.20 − (-0.42) = 0.62. Since net proceeds equal gross proceeds × 0.96, gross raise = 0.62/0.96 = $0.65 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This ignores positive quarterly cash inflows and overstates the cumulative funding need.

C. Why this choice falls short

This covers only the first quarter and ignores the later cash trough.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the net cash need and ignores issuance fees.

E. Why this choice falls short

This deducts a fee from the cash need rather than increasing gross proceeds to cover the fee.

Related Week 4 deck

Sales ramp and recognized subscription revenue

Hard (6/8)

P011 · New quantitative practice

A company hires 3 sales representatives on January 1. They spend January through March training and close no contracts during those months. Starting April 1, each representative signs 5 new customers on the first day of every month through December. Each customer pays $1,200 per month and service begins immediately. Recognize revenue monthly; assume no churn, discounts, bad debts, or prior customers. How much revenue is recognized in the calendar year?

  1. $1,404,000
  2. $810,000
  3. $648,000
  4. $162,000
  5. $1,944,000

Correct answer: B

Each monthly cohort adds 15 customers and $18,000 of MRR. April customers contribute 9 months, May 8, and so on through December’s 1 month. Total = 18,000 × (9 + 8 + … + 1) = $810,000.

A. Why this choice falls short

This assumes representatives generate customers during the three-month training period.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits one month of revenue for every acquisition cohort.

D. Why this choice falls short

This counts each new customer for only one month.

E. Why this choice falls short

This treats every contract signed during April–December as producing a full 12 months of revenue.

Related Week 4 deck

Growth required to reach the revenue target

Medium (3/8)

P012 · New quantitative practice

A startup’s current annual revenue is $1.8 million. The operating plan targets $5.4 million in annual revenue exactly 4 years from now. Assume the same percentage growth rate each year and no acquisitions. Management also forecasts a 65% gross margin at the target scale. What annual compound revenue growth rate is required, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 50.0%
  2. 31.6%
  3. 44.2%
  4. 18.2%
  5. 200.0%

Correct answer: B

There are 4 annual growth intervals. Solve 1.8 × (1 + g)^4 = 5.4: g = (5.4/1.8)^(1/4) − 1 = 31.6%. Gross margin does not enter this revenue-growth calculation.

A. Why this choice falls short

This divides total growth by years rather than compounding.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses one fewer compounding period than specified.

D. Why this choice falls short

This mixes the target gross profit with current revenue.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is the total growth over the entire horizon.

Related Week 4 deck

Gross raise required at the cash trough

Hard (7/8)

P022 · New quantitative practice

All amounts are in millions. A startup has unrestricted cash of 0.50 today. Its four quarterly net cash flows before financing are -0.35, -0.42, +0.18, -0.30, respectively. The company must maintain at least 0.25 at every quarter-end and today. A financing closes today with an issuance fee of 5% of gross proceeds deducted immediately. No other cash flows occur. What gross raise is required, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $0.86 million
  2. $0.67 million
  3. $0.64 million
  4. $0.11 million
  5. $0.61 million

Correct answer: B

Without financing, quarter-end balances are 0.15, -0.27, -0.09, -0.39 million. The lowest is -0.39. Net new cash needed = 0.25 − (-0.39) = 0.64. Since net proceeds equal gross proceeds × 0.95, gross raise = 0.64/0.95 = $0.67 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This ignores positive quarterly cash inflows and overstates the cumulative funding need.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is the net cash need and ignores issuance fees.

D. Why this choice falls short

This covers only the first quarter and ignores the later cash trough.

E. Why this choice falls short

This deducts a fee from the cash need rather than increasing gross proceeds to cover the fee.

Related Week 4 deck

Sales ramp and recognized subscription revenue

Hard (6/8)

P023 · New quantitative practice

A company hires 4 sales representatives on January 1. They spend January through March training and close no contracts during those months. Starting April 1, each representative signs 4 new customers on the first day of every month through December. Each customer pays $1,500 per month and service begins immediately. Recognize revenue monthly; assume no churn, discounts, bad debts, or prior customers. How much revenue is recognized in the calendar year?

  1. $864,000
  2. $216,000
  3. $1,080,000
  4. $1,872,000
  5. $2,592,000

Correct answer: C

Each monthly cohort adds 16 customers and $24,000 of MRR. April customers contribute 9 months, May 8, and so on through December’s 1 month. Total = 24,000 × (9 + 8 + … + 1) = $1,080,000.

A. Why this choice falls short

This omits one month of revenue for every acquisition cohort.

B. Why this choice falls short

This counts each new customer for only one month.

D. Why this choice falls short

This assumes representatives generate customers during the three-month training period.

E. Why this choice falls short

This treats every contract signed during April–December as producing a full 12 months of revenue.

Related Week 4 deck

Growth required to reach the revenue target

Medium (3/8)

P024 · New quantitative practice

A startup’s current annual revenue is $2.5 million. The operating plan targets $7.5 million in annual revenue exactly 5 years from now. Assume the same percentage growth rate each year and no acquisitions. Management also forecasts a 65% gross margin at the target scale. What annual compound revenue growth rate is required, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 200.0%
  2. 14.3%
  3. 31.6%
  4. 24.6%
  5. 40.0%

Correct answer: D

There are 5 annual growth intervals. Solve 2.5 × (1 + g)^5 = 7.5: g = (7.5/2.5)^(1/5) − 1 = 24.6%. Gross margin does not enter this revenue-growth calculation.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is the total growth over the entire horizon.

B. Why this choice falls short

This mixes the target gross profit with current revenue.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses one fewer compounding period than specified.

E. Why this choice falls short

This divides total growth by years rather than compounding.

Related Week 4 deck

Week 5: Valuation Methods and Venture Pricing

Method selection

Hard (6/8)

W5-S005 · Source slide 5

A startup has a working product, a few paying customers, negative free cash flow, and little resalable equipment. Its public peers are much larger and more profitable. Which valuation approach is most defensible?

  1. Capitalize next year’s forecast profit as a stable perpetuity because the product is already working.
  2. Build cash-flow scenarios from operating drivers, use suitable discount rates, and challenge the range with adjusted market evidence.
  3. Apply the public peers’ median revenue multiple unchanged because all companies sell similar products.
  4. Use the equipment’s resale value as the going-concern value because the startup has negative cash flow.

Correct answer: B

The company needs an explicit path to sustainable cash flow. Scenarios expose the assumptions, while comparable prices provide a separate reasonableness check.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assumes stability before it is established.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores differences in scale and economics.

D. Why this choice falls short

Values recoverable assets while omitting the operating opportunity.

Source notes

Damodaran, Valuation lecture notes; Damodaran, The Anatomy of a Multiple

Related Week 5 deck

Equity value

Easy (0/8)

W5-S008 · Source slide 8

Which calculation estimates equity value when enterprise value, excess cash, and debt are known and no other claims exist?

  1. Enterprise value plus debt and excess cash.
  2. Enterprise value divided by debt.
  3. Enterprise value plus excess cash minus debt.
  4. Enterprise value minus excess cash plus debt.

Correct answer: C

Excess cash adds value available to equity. Debt has a prior claim and is subtracted. The question excludes other claims.

A. Why this choice falls short

Adds debt instead of subtracting it.

B. Why this choice falls short

Produces a ratio rather than equity value.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reverses both signs.

Source notes

Damodaran, Valuation lecture notes

Related Week 5 deck

Matching cash flow and value

Medium (4/8)

W5-S011 · Source slide 11

An analyst forecasts FCFF before interest and debt repayments. WACC is 10% and the cost of equity is 14%. The company has $6M of excess cash, $18M of debt, and no other claims. Which procedure correctly estimates equity value?

  1. Discount FCFF at 14%, then add $6M and subtract $18M.
  2. Discount FCFF at 10% and report the result directly as equity value.
  3. Subtract interest from FCFF, discount the result at 10%, then subtract $18M of debt.
  4. Discount FCFF at 10%, then add $6M and subtract $18M.

Correct answer: D

FCFF belongs to all capital providers, so WACC produces operating EV. Adding excess cash and subtracting debt then gives equity value.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses the equity rate for firm cash flows.

B. Why this choice falls short

Omits the equity bridge.

C. Why this choice falls short

Mixes a cash flow after interest with the firm’s discount rate.

Source notes

Damodaran, Valuation lecture notes

Related Week 5 deck

FCFF

Medium (4/8)

W5-S014 · Source slide 14

Assumptions: Net working capital means operating NWC, excluding excess cash and debt. Apply the 25% tax rate to EBIT.

EBIT is $5M, tax rate 25%, D&A $0.8M, CapEx $1.2M, and net working capital rose $0.3M. What is FCFF?

  1. $5.00M
  2. $3.75M
  3. $2.55M
  4. $4.30M
  5. $3.05M

Correct answer: E

NOPAT = $5M × (1 − 25%) = $3.75M. $3.75M NOPAT + $0.8M - $1.2M - $0.3M = $3.05M.

Key takeaway: FCFF = NOPAT + D&A - CapEx - increase in net working capital.

A tax-loss carryforward could change cash taxes in a real startup forecast.

A. Why this choice falls short

EBIT is operating profit before tax; FCFF also reflects taxes, noncash charges, capital spending, and working-capital investment.

B. Why this choice falls short

NOPAT deducts operating taxes but still needs the D&A add-back and deductions for capex and operating working capital.

C. Why this choice falls short

Requires −$1.20M of net adjustments, but the stated adjustments total −$0.70M.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits $1.25M of operating taxes.

Related Week 5 deck

Present value

Easy (2/8)

W5-S017 · Source slide 17

A year-end FCFF of $1.1 million is discounted one year at 10%. What is its present value?

  1. $1.1 million.
  2. $0.9 million.
  3. $1.21 million.
  4. $1 million.

Correct answer: D

$1.1M / 1.10 = $1.0M. The cash flow arrives one year from today.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits discounting.

B. Why this choice falls short

Would grow to only $0.99M at 10%, below the stated $1.1M receipt.

C. Why this choice falls short

Compounds forward instead of discounting.

Related Week 5 deck

Discounted prepayments

Hard (7/8)

W5-S020 · Source slide 20

A software company offers a four-year service contract under two payment options:

Annual billing: The customer pays $180,000 at the end of each year for four years.

Prepayment: The customer pays today and receives a 15% discount from the total undiscounted contract price.

Accepting prepayment creates a one-time $12,000 processing cost today. That cost does not apply to annual billing. Service-delivery costs are $40,000 at the end of each year under either option.

The appropriate opportunity cost of capital for comparing these cash flows is 18% annually. Service obligations are identical, all payments occur as scheduled, and there are no taxes or other incremental cash flows.

What is the incremental NPV today of accepting prepayment rather than annual billing, rounded to the nearest $100?

  1. −$120,000
  2. +$28,600
  3. +$115,800
  4. +$127,800
  5. +$8,200

Correct answer: C

Prepayment receipt = 4 × $180,000 × 85% = $612,000. After the unique processing cost, cash received today is $600,000.

PV of annual receipts = $180,000/1.18 + $180,000/1.18² + $180,000/1.18³ + $180,000/1.18⁴ = $484,211.12.

Incremental NPV = $600,000 − $484,211.12 = +$115,788.88, or +$115,800. Identical service-delivery costs cancel. Do not add a separate reinvestment return to cash flows already valued at the appropriate opportunity cost.

A. Why this choice falls short

Compares undiscounted totals and ignores the value of receiving cash earlier.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats the annual payments as beginning-of-year receipts instead of the stated year-end receipts.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits the processing cost that applies only to prepayment.

E. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts common service costs from only one alternative; the identical costs cancel in the incremental comparison.

Related Week 5 deck

CAPM

Easy (2/8)

W5-S023 · Source slide 23

The risk-free rate is 4%, beta is 1.2, and the equity risk premium is 5%. What is the CAPM cost of equity?

  1. 5.0%
  2. 10.0%
  3. 9.0%
  4. 11.2%
  5. 6.0%

Correct answer: B

4% + 1.2 x 5% = 4% + 6% = 10%.

Key takeaway: Cost of equity = risk-free rate + beta x equity risk premium.

A. Why this choice falls short

The 5% equity risk premium is only one input. CAPM adds the risk-free rate to beta times that premium.

C. Why this choice falls short

9% equals 4% + 5%, implicitly using beta of 1 rather than the stated 1.2.

D. Why this choice falls short

With a 4% risk-free rate and 5% premium, 11.2% would require beta of 1.44. The stated beta of 1.2 gives 10%.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits the 4% risk-free rate.

Related Week 5 deck

WACC calculation

Medium (4/8)

W5-S025 · Source slide 25

A company’s target financing mix is 70% equity and 30% debt, measured at market value. Its cost of equity is 14%, current pre-tax borrowing cost is 8%, and tax rate is 25%. The interest deduction is fully usable. What is WACC?

  1. 12.20%
  2. 9.15%
  3. 11.60%
  4. 9.80%

Correct answer: C

After-tax debt cost = 8% × 0.75 = 6%. WACC = 0.70 × 14% + 0.30 × 6% = 9.8% + 1.8% = 11.6%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits the debt tax shield.

B. Why this choice falls short

Also taxes the equity component.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits the debt component.

Source notes

Damodaran, Capital Structure lecture notes

Related Week 5 deck

Terminal-value calculation

Medium (4/8)

W5-S032 · Source slide 32

Assumptions: FCF means FCFF. Stable growth starts after Year n. All rates are annual.

Final-year FCF is $10M, WACC is 10%, and perpetuity growth is 3%. What is the terminal value at Year n?

  1. $100.0M
  2. $333.3M
  3. $147.1M
  4. $103.0M
  5. $127.5M

Correct answer: C

$10M x 1.03 / (0.10 - 0.03) = $10.3M / 0.07 = $147.1M.

Key takeaway: Gordon terminal value = FCF_n x (1 + g) / (WACC - g), and requires g < WACC.

This is value at the end of Year n. Discount it again to obtain its value today.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses current FCFF divided by WACC.

B. Why this choice falls short

Divides current FCFF by g.

D. Why this choice falls short

Calculates $10.3M / 10% = $103M, omitting g from the denominator.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses 2% growth instead of 3%.

Source notes

Damodaran, Valuation lecture notes

Related Week 5 deck

DCF and exit multiples

Hard (7/8)

W5-S034 · Source slide 34

An analyst prepares a DCF for a growing company. All FCFF occurs at year-end and already reflects operating taxes and required reinvestment.

Forecast inputYear 1Year 2Year 3
FCFF$0.8 million$1.4 million$2.2 million
EBITDA——$4.8 million

The analyst applies a 7.5× multiple to Year 3 EBITDA to estimate terminal enterprise value at the end of Year 3. That terminal value represents operating value from Year 4 onward. WACC is 12% annually.

At today's valuation date, excess cash is $1.6 million and debt is $5.2 million. There are no other claims or nonoperating assets.

What is equity value today, rounded to $0.01 million?

  1. Equity value today: $25.42 million.
  2. Equity value today: $29.02 million.
  3. Equity value today: $23.85 million.
  4. Equity value today: $35.80 million.
  5. Equity value today: $11.54 million.

Correct answer: A

Terminal EV at the end of Year 3 = 7.5 × $4.8 million = $36 million.

EV today = 0.8/1.12 + 1.4/1.12² + (2.2 + 36)/1.12³ = $29.020363 million.

Equity value = EV + excess cash − debt = 29.020363 + 1.6 − 5.2 = $25.420363 million, rounded to $25.42 million.

Year 3 FCFF and terminal EV occur at the same date but represent different cash flows. Include both in the final forecast-period amount. The exit multiple introduces market-pricing assumptions into the DCF; it is not independent of the comparable-company evidence used to select that multiple.

B. Why this choice falls short

Stops at enterprise value and omits the excess-cash and debt bridge.

C. Why this choice falls short

Omits Year 3 FCFF even though terminal value covers cash flows beginning in Year 4.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds terminal value without discounting it from the end of Year 3 to today.

E. Why this choice falls short

Applies an EV/EBITDA multiple to FCFF instead of EBITDA.

Related Week 5 deck

DCF and equity value

Hard (7/8)

W5-S036 · Source slide 36

An analyst values a startup immediately before any new financing. Forecast FCFF is negative $1.2 million in Year 1, positive $0.6 million in Year 2, and positive $2.4 million in Year 3. All forecast cash flows occur at year-end.

Year 3 FCFF excludes one-time items and is the starting amount for the long-term forecast. From Year 4 onward, FCFF grows 3% per year forever. All FCFF amounts are after operating taxes and the reinvestment needed to support the stated growth. A 14% annual WACC is appropriate throughout the forecast.

The company has $2.1 million of cash, of which $0.8 million is required for operations and already reflected in operating value. Debt is $3.8 million. There are no other claims or nonoperating assets.

What are enterprise value and equity value today, rounded to the nearest $0.01 million?

  1. Enterprise value: $17.25 million; equity value: $14.75 million.
  2. Enterprise value: $23.50 million; equity value: $21.00 million.
  3. Enterprise value: $15.76 million; equity value: $13.26 million.
  4. Enterprise value: $16.20 million; equity value: $14.50 million.
  5. Enterprise value: $16.20 million; equity value: $13.70 million.

Correct answer: E

Year 4 FCFF = $2.4 million × 1.03 = $2.472 million.

Terminal EV at the end of Year 3 = $2.472 million / (14% − 3%) = $22.472727 million.

EV today = −1.2/1.14 + 0.6/1.14² + (2.4 + 22.472727)/1.14³ = $16.197431 million.

Excess cash = $2.1 million − $0.8 million = $1.3 million. Equity value = EV + excess cash − debt = $13.697431 million. The new financing is not added to this pre-financing valuation; its cash and claims would require a separate consistent bridge.

A. Why this choice falls short

Drops the negative Year 1 FCFF, overstating both values.

B. Why this choice falls short

Adds terminal value at its Year 3 amount without discounting it to today.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses Year 3 FCFF rather than Year 4 FCFF in the terminal-value numerator.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds all cash, including operating cash already reflected in enterprise value.

Related Week 5 deck

Growth, reinvestment, and terminal value

Hard (6/8)

W5-S041 · Source slide 41

A DCF's explicit forecast ends at Year 4. After-tax operating profit in Year 5, the first stable year, is $6m. Thereafter it grows 3% annually. Sustainable ROIC is 15%, WACC is 9%, and the stable reinvestment relationship applies. All cash flows are at year-end.

What are Year 5 FCFF and terminal value at the end of Year 4?

  1. Year 5 FCFF: $6.00m; terminal value: $100.00m.
  2. Year 5 FCFF: $4.80m; terminal value: $82.40m.
  3. Year 5 FCFF: $4.80m; terminal value: $80.00m.
  4. Year 5 FCFF: $5.10m; terminal value: $85.00m.
  5. Year 5 FCFF: $4.80m; terminal value: $56.67m.

Correct answer: C

Reinvestment rate = 3% / 15% = 20%. FCFF in Year 5 = $6m × 80% = $4.80m.

Terminal value at Year 4 = $4.80m / (9% − 3%) = $80m. Its present value today would be $80m / 1.09⁴ ≈ $56.67m.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits reinvestment.

B. Why this choice falls short

Grows a first-stable-year cash flow again.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats ROIC as the reinvestment rate.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reports today's value instead of the requested Year 4 value.

Related Week 5 deck

Terminal-value risk

Medium (4/8)

W5-S043 · Source slide 43

A model’s terminal value is most of its enterprise value. Which follow-up is appropriate?

  1. Report the result as certain.
  2. Stress-test perpetual growth or exit-multiple assumptions and compare valuation methods.
  3. Ignore terminal assumptions because they concern later years.
  4. Use the highest available multiple without adjustment.

Correct answer: B

A large terminal contribution makes the valuation sensitive to assumptions beyond the explicit forecast. Test plausible growth, reinvestment, discount rates, and exit multiples.

A. Why this choice falls short

Treats uncertain estimates as certain.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the main value driver.

D. Why this choice falls short

Selects an optimistic multiple without evidence.

Source notes

Damodaran, Excess Returns and Terminal Value

Related Week 5 deck

Terminal-value sensitivity

Hard (7/8)

W5-S045 · Source slide 45

An analyst has already discounted a company's Year 1–3 FCFF to today at a 12% annual WACC. The combined present value is $4.8 million; this amount covers only those three years.

FCFF at the end of Year 3 is $2.4 million. It excludes one-time items and is after operating taxes and required reinvestment. Use this amount as the starting point for growth from Year 4 onward.

The analyst compares two perpetual-growth assumptions, both beginning in Year 4:

InputBase caseSensitivity case
Perpetual FCFF growth2%4%
WACC12%12%

All future FCFF occurs at year-end. Terminal value is measured at the end of Year 3 and covers Year 4 onward. Keep the Year 1–3 forecast unchanged. For this exercise, assume each scenario's future FCFF already reflects enough reinvestment to sustain its stated growth rate forever.

How much does enterprise value today increase in the sensitivity case, and what percentage of base-case enterprise value comes from the present value of terminal value? Report the increase in millions of dollars and the terminal-value share as a percentage, each to two decimal places.

  1. EV increase: $6.72 million; base-case terminal-value share: 83.61%.
  2. EV increase: $4.78 million; base-case terminal-value share: 78.40%.
  3. EV increase: $4.27 million; base-case terminal-value share: 78.06%.
  4. EV increase: $5.36 million; base-case terminal-value share: 80.26%.
  5. EV increase: $0.35 million; base-case terminal-value share: 78.40%.

Correct answer: B

Calculation, $ millionsBase case: 2% growthSensitivity: 4% growth
Year 4 FCFF2.4 × 1.02 = 2.4482.4 × 1.04 = 2.496
Terminal EV at end of Year 32.448/(12% − 2%) = 24.4800002.496/(12% − 4%) = 31.200000
PV of terminal EV17.42438022.207544
PV of Year 1–3 FCFF4.8000004.800000
EV today22.22438027.007544

EV increase = 27.007544 − 22.224380 = $4.783163 million, or $4.78 million.

Base terminal-value share = 17.424380/22.224380 = 78.402098%, or 78.40%.

The $4.8 million already includes the present value of Year 3 FCFF; do not add the $2.4 million again. The terminal calculation starts with Year 4 FCFF. The higher growth rate affects both next-year FCFF and the discount-rate-minus-growth denominator. A terminal-heavy DCF needs sensitivity analysis and evidence for sustainable growth and reinvestment; the larger result is not automatically the more credible price.

A. Why this choice falls short

Adds terminal values without discounting them to today, overstating both the valuation change and terminal-value share.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses Year 3 FCFF directly in both terminal-value numerators instead of growing it to Year 4.

D. Why this choice falls short

Discounts terminal value for only two years even though it is measured at the end of Year 3.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats a two-percentage-point increase in perpetual growth as merely a 2% increase in terminal value.

Related Week 5 deck

Interpreting IRR

Easy (1/8)

W5-S049 · Source slide 49

Why can a high IRR be hard to interpret as a realized compound return when interim distributions are material?

  1. It applies a discount rate that is set far too low
  2. It ignores the initial cash outflow entirely
  3. It always produces a negative return
  4. It double-counts the terminal cash flow at exit
  5. Interim distributions may not be reinvestable at the IRR

Correct answer: E

Interpreting IRR as a realized compound return can implicitly require reinvestment of interim distributions at a very high rate. MIRR lets you specify a more realistic reinvestment rate.

Key takeaway: IRR can be hard to interpret when cash-flow signs change or interim distributions are large; use NPV and MIRR alongside it.

Computing IRR does not require actual reinvestment. The reinvestment issue concerns interpreting it as terminal compound wealth.

A. Why this choice falls short

Confuses IRR with an imposed discount rate.

B. Why this choice falls short

Misstate the calculation.

C. Why this choice falls short

Is false: IRR can be positive.

D. Why this choice falls short

Misstate the calculation.

Source notes

Microsoft, IRR function; Microsoft, MIRR function

Related Week 5 deck

Return percentage versus value created

Hard (6/8)

W5-S052 · Source slide 52

Two projects are mutually exclusive, have comparable risk, and require only an initial investment followed by one year-end receipt. Capital is available for either. Project A costs $100 and returns $140. Project B costs $1,000 and returns $1,300. The appropriate required return is 10%. Which choice maximizes value?

  1. Choose A because its 40% IRR exceeds B’s 30% IRR.
  2. Choose A because its smaller initial outlay proves it has lower risk.
  3. Choose both because each has positive NPV.
  4. Choose B because its NPV is about $181.82, versus $27.27 for A.

Correct answer: D

NPV_A = −100 + 140 / 1.10 = $27.27. NPV_B = −1,000 + 1,300 / 1.10 = $181.82. B creates more value under the stated constraints.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ranks percentages while ignoring scale.

B. Why this choice falls short

Contradicts the comparable-risk assumption.

C. Why this choice falls short

Violates mutual exclusivity. Neither project has interim distributions to reinvest.

Related Week 5 deck

Failure risk counted once

Hard (6/8)

W5-S055 · Source slide 55

In a one-year illustration, a venture pays $100M with 60% probability and $0 otherwise. Assume 20% is the appropriate discount rate for the probability-weighted payoff. Discounting the success-only $100M at 100% would produce the same value. An analyst instead discounts the expected $60M at 100%. Which assessment is correct?

  1. $30M is correct because all VC investments require a 100% discount rate.
  2. Value is $50M under the stated expected-payoff method; $30M counts the same failure adjustment twice.
  3. Value is $83.33M because the 60% success probability should not affect the forecast.
  4. Value is $60M because probability weighting removes the need to discount.

Correct answer: B

Expected payoff = 0.60 × 100 = $60M. PV = 60 / 1.20 = $50M. Equivalently, 100 / 2.00 = $50M. The analyst’s 60 / 2.00 = $30M applies both versions of the same failure adjustment.

A. Why this choice falls short

Turns an illustrative fitted rate into a universal hurdle.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores failure.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits the time and risk adjustment specified in the question.

Source notes

Independent teaching illustration. It demonstrates consistency; it does not estimate a real startup’s required return.

Related Week 5 deck

P/E versus PEG

Hard (6/8)

W5-S061 · Source slide 61

An analyst compares two profitable growth companies using the following information:

InputAtlasBeacon
Current share price$90.00$88.00
EPS for the most recent 12 months$3.00$4.00
Forecast EPS for the following 12 months$3.75$4.60
Forecast revenue growth over those following 12 months40%12%

The EPS figures already exclude one-time gains and losses and use consistent accounting policies. No further earnings adjustments are needed. Use trailing EPS for P/E and expected EPS growth over the next 12 months for PEG.

Which answer gives the correct P/E and PEG for each company, rounded to two decimal places, and identifies the company with the lower PEG?

  1. Atlas: P/E 24.00×, PEG 0.96; Beacon: P/E 19.13×, PEG 1.28. Lower PEG: Atlas.
  2. Atlas: P/E 30.00×, PEG 1.20; Beacon: P/E 22.00×, PEG 1.47. Lower PEG: Atlas.
  3. Atlas: P/E 30.00×, PEG 0.75; Beacon: P/E 22.00×, PEG 1.83. Lower PEG: Atlas.
  4. Atlas: P/E 30.00×, PEG 1.50; Beacon: P/E 22.00×, PEG 1.69. Lower PEG: Atlas.
  5. Atlas: P/E 30.00×, PEG 0.40; Beacon: P/E 22.00×, PEG 0.37. Lower PEG: Beacon.

Correct answer: B

CalculationAtlasBeacon
Trailing P/E$90/$3 = 30.00×$88/$4 = 22.00×
Expected EPS growth($3.75 − $3)/$3 = 25%($4.60 − $4)/$4 = 15%
Conventional PEG30/25 = 1.2022/15 = 1.47

Beacon has the lower P/E; Atlas has the lower PEG. The conventional PEG denominator uses the growth rate as a whole percentage, such as 25, not 0.25. Revenue growth is not the earnings-growth input specified here.

A lower PEG is a relative-pricing observation, not proof of undervaluation. Risk, reinvestment, and the reliability and duration of forecast growth still matter. PEG is part of relative valuation, rather than a separate intrinsic-value method. The method-selection question separately assesses that limitation.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses forward EPS for P/E even though the question specifies trailing EPS; the growth interval still begins with trailing EPS.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses revenue growth in the PEG denominator instead of expected EPS growth.

D. Why this choice falls short

Divides the EPS increase by forecast EPS rather than the trailing EPS base.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats the dollar EPS increase as a growth rate: $0.75 becomes 75% and $0.60 becomes 60%.

Related Week 5 deck

Comparable companies

Medium (4/8)

W5-S063 · Source slide 63

Public comparables have very different growth and retention from the subject startup. What should the analyst do?

  1. Treat equal revenue as proof of equal value.
  2. Discard every market comparison without analysis.
  3. Explain comparability limits and adjust the selected range using relevant evidence.
  4. Apply the highest multiple unchanged.

Correct answer: C

Different growth and retention can imply different future cash flows and risks. Explain those differences and select a range supported by the available evidence.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores operating economics.

B. Why this choice falls short

Throws away potentially useful evidence before evaluating it.

D. Why this choice falls short

Cherry-picks the highest multiple.

Source notes

Damodaran, The Anatomy of a Multiple

Related Week 5 deck

Comparable-company valuation

Hard (7/8)

W5-S066 · Source slide 66

An analyst selects three public peers with similar forward growth, margins, and revenue definitions. Use the median of their enterprise-value-to-next-twelve-months-revenue multiples for this exercise.

PeerMarket value of equityDebtExcess cashNext-twelve-months revenue
A$54 million$8 million$2 million$10 million
B$74 million$14 million$4 million$12 million
C$91 million$10 million$5 million$12 million

The startup has $10 million of next-twelve-months revenue, $8 million of revenue for the previous twelve months, $8 million of debt, and $4 million of cash. Of that cash, $1 million is required for operations and already reflected in enterprise value. No other claims or adjustments apply.

What enterprise value and equity value result, rounded to the nearest $0.01 million?

  1. Enterprise value: $56.00 million; equity value: $51.00 million.
  2. Enterprise value: $61.67 million; equity value: $56.67 million.
  3. Enterprise value: $70.00 million; equity value: $66.00 million.
  4. Enterprise value: $70.00 million; equity value: $65.00 million.
  5. Enterprise value: $70.00 million; equity value: $75.00 million.

Correct answer: D

Peer EVs are $60 million, $84 million, and $96 million. Dividing by the matching forward revenues gives 6.0×, 7.0×, and 8.0×. The stipulated median is 7.0×.

Startup EV = 7.0 × $10 million = $70 million. Excess cash is $3 million. Equity value = $70 million + $3 million − $8 million = $65 million.

Using a median is an instruction for this exercise, not a general rule that replaces comparability analysis.

A. Why this choice falls short

Applies a forward-revenue multiple to trailing revenue.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses peers’ market equity values as the numerator of an enterprise-value multiple.

C. Why this choice falls short

Adds required operating cash as though it were excess cash.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the equity bridge by adding debt and subtracting excess cash.

Related Week 5 deck

Control transactions

Easy (1/8)

W5-S069 · Source slide 69

Assumptions: Relevant, reasonably comparable transactions involving acquisitions of control are available.

You are valuing a company for an acquisition of control. Which comparable set is most appropriate, and why?

  1. Trading comps, because they exclude any premium
  2. Neither, since only DCF applies to acquisitions
  3. Precedent transactions, because they reflect prices actually paid for control
  4. Trading comps, because control carries no value
  5. The cost approach, since assets set the price

Correct answer: C

Precedent transactions are especially relevant in control deals because they reflect prices actually paid, including deal-specific control and synergy effects.

Key takeaway: Use precedent transactions as an important reference for control deals and trading comps as a reference for market-valued minority interests; adjust for differences.

Precedents remain a reference, not an automatic premium to add to every valuation.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the acquisition’s control context.

B. Why this choice falls short

Wrongly excludes market evidence.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assumes control has no value.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats asset cost as the only relevant measure.

Related Week 5 deck

Ownership sold

Easy (2/8)

W5-S072 · Source slide 72

A venture raises $2 million at $6 million pre-money, with no other capitalization changes. What ownership is sold?

  1. 20%.
  2. 75%.
  3. 25%.
  4. 33.33%.

Correct answer: C

Post-money value = $6M + $2M = $8M. Ownership sold = $2M / $8M = 25%. Existing holders retain 75%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Would require a $10M post-money value, rather than $8M.

B. Why this choice falls short

Is the existing holders’ share.

D. Why this choice falls short

Divides by pre-money value.

Related Week 5 deck

VC hurdle versus WACC

Easy (1/8)

W5-S076 · Source slide 76

Why does the VC method discount at a target return rather than WACC?

  1. The target return reflects stage risk, illiquidity, dilution, and skewed portfolio outcomes
  2. WACC is always higher than any VC target return
  3. The VC method ignores the time value of money
  4. Pre-revenue firms have a precise, observable beta
  5. WACC cannot be computed for public companies

Correct answer: A

A high target return reflects stage risk, illiquidity, dilution, and the skewed distribution of VC outcomes.

Key takeaway: The VC target return is a pricing convention for highly risky, illiquid early-stage investments; it is not simply a WACC substitute.

If failure or dilution is modeled explicitly, reconcile the target return so the same adjustment is not counted twice.

B. Why this choice falls short

There is no general rule that WACC exceeds a VC target return. Early-stage target returns often incorporate risks and pricing conventions beyond a standard public-company cost of capital.

C. Why this choice falls short

The VC method explicitly discounts expected exit proceeds to today's price. It does not ignore the time value of money.

D. Why this choice falls short

A private pre-revenue company has no directly observed traded-stock beta. An estimate may be inferred from appropriate comparables and assumptions.

E. Why this choice falls short

WACC can be estimated for public companies using market-value capital weights and estimated costs of debt and equity.

Related Week 5 deck

VC pricing with an exit-value bridge

Medium (4/8)

W5-S078 · Source slide 78

A VC invests $5M and requires a 5× total investment multiple over five years. Projected exit enterprise value is $120M, exit excess cash is $10M, and exit debt is $30M. Assume no other claims, future dilution, interim distributions, or preferences. What ownership today and implied post-money equity value meet the target?

  1. 20.8% ownership and $24M post-money.
  2. 25% ownership and $25M post-money.
  3. 25% ownership and $20M post-money.
  4. 5% ownership and $100M post-money.

Correct answer: C

Exit equity proceeds = 120 + 10 − 30 = $100M. Required proceeds = 5 × 5 = $25M. Ownership = 25 / 100 = 25%. Post-money = 5 / 25% = $20M. Pre-money is $15M.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses exit EV without the cash/debt bridge.

B. Why this choice falls short

Adds the investment again after computing post-money.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the 5× target.

Related Week 5 deck

Ownership before dilution

Easy (2/8)

W5-S081 · Source slide 81

Assumptions: 30% dilution means a 30% proportional reduction in the existing stake. The investor makes no follow-on investment.

A VC needs 10% ownership at exit and expects 30% dilution before then. What ownership must they take today?

  1. 10.0%
  2. 7.0%
  3. 13.0%
  4. 40.0%
  5. 14.3%

Correct answer: E

Required current ownership = 10% / (1 - 0.30) = 10% / 0.70 = 14.3%.

Key takeaway: Required current ownership = required final ownership / retention ratio.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores dilution.

B. Why this choice falls short

Applies dilution in the wrong direction.

C. Why this choice falls short

Adds 30% instead of dividing by retention.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds percentage points.

Related Week 5 deck

VC pricing and dilution

Hard (7/8)

W5-S083 · Source slide 83

A VC considers investing $4 million today. The investor requires a 40% annual compound return over five years and receives no cash distributions before exit.

At the end of Year 5, the assumed sale enterprise value is $150 million. Debt is expected to be $15 million and excess cash $5 million. No other claims or sale costs apply. The investment converts into common equity at exit with no preferential payout.

Two later financings will reduce the investor's ownership percentage by 20% and then by another 10%, each relative to the percentage immediately before that financing. The investor will not participate in either round. Use the stated exit scenario and return requirement consistently, without an additional probability adjustment.

What initial ownership and corresponding pre-money valuation meet the investor's return requirement?

  1. Initial ownership: 21.34%; pre-money valuation: $14.74 million.
  2. Initial ownership: 19.92%; pre-money valuation: $16.08 million.
  3. Initial ownership: 21.95%; pre-money valuation: $14.22 million.
  4. Initial ownership: 15.37%; pre-money valuation: $22.03 million.
  5. Initial ownership: 5.56%; pre-money valuation: $68.00 million.

Correct answer: A

Required exit proceeds = $4 million × 1.40⁵ = $21.51296 million.

Exit equity value = $150 million + $5 million − $15 million = $140 million. Combined retention is 80% × 90% = 72%.

Required initial ownership = 21.51296 / (140 × 72%) = 21.342222%.

Post-money value = $4 million / 0.21342222 = $18.742191 million. Pre-money value subtracts the $4 million investment: $14.742191 million. This is a VC pricing convention using the supplied scenario and hurdle, not an estimate of CAPM cost of capital.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses exit enterprise value as if it were the amount available to equity.

C. Why this choice falls short

Adds successive dilution percentages rather than multiplying retention factors.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores both future rounds of dilution.

E. Why this choice falls short

Applies 40% once over the entire holding period rather than compounding it annually.

Related Week 5 deck

Founder proceeds

Medium (4/8)

W5-S087 · Source slide 87

Assumptions: Exit means net equity proceeds. The preference is uncapped; founders own the other 80%. No other claims, dividends, fees, or dilution apply.

On a $30M exit, a $5M investor at $20M pre (20%) holds a 2x participating preference. What do founders receive?

  1. $24M, the same as a 1x non-participating
  2. $16M, after the investor takes $14M
  3. $25M, since the preference is capped
  4. $0, because preferred takes everything
  5. $20M, split evenly with the investor

Correct answer: B

The investor takes $10M plus 20% of the remaining $20M ($4M), so $14M, leaving $16M.

Key takeaway: Participating preferred takes its multiple off the top, then shares the rest, shrinking common.

A. Why this choice falls short

Describes the alternative 1× non-participating case.

C. Why this choice falls short

Assumes an unstated cap.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the $20M left after the preference.

E. Why this choice falls short

Stops at that $20M before the investor’s $4M participation.

Related Week 5 deck

Reconciling valuation ranges

Medium (4/8)

W5-S091 · Source slide 91

For the same company, date, currency, and enterprise-value basis, a DCF indicates $30M–$45M while trading comparables indicate $60M–$80M. What is the strongest next step?

  1. Average the two midpoints to $53.75M and call it the most defensible value.
  2. Investigate forecast and peer differences, assess evidence quality, and explain the range supported by that analysis.
  3. Use $60M–$80M automatically because market prices always override cash-flow analysis.
  4. Raise perpetual growth until the DCF overlaps the comparable range.

Correct answer: B

A common value basis makes the gap meaningful. Test the forecasts, margins, reinvestment, discount rates, and peer selection before deciding how much weight each result deserves.

A. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes arithmetic for judgment.

C. Why this choice falls short

Grants automatic priority to one method.

D. Why this choice falls short

Forces agreement by changing an assumption without evidence.

Source notes

IVSC, Standards glossary (page marked March 2020); Damodaran, The Anatomy of a Multiple

Related Week 5 deck

Reconciling DCF and comps

Hard (6/8)

W5-S094 · Source slide 94

A startup's DCF indicates enterprise value of $28–34 million. Applying public-peer revenue multiples produces $40–52 million. Both analyses use the same valuation date, currency, and forward-revenue period.

The startup's net revenue retention is 95% and gross margin is 60%, compared with 125% and 80% for the peers. The DCF also assumes rapid revenue growth with almost no increase in annual capital spending or investment in operating working capital. Neither the retention gap nor the margin gap is expected to disappear during the forecast.

The founder proposes using the midpoint of the combined enterprise-value range as the starting point for financing negotiations. Before recommending a valuation range, which approach best addresses the evidence?

  1. Weight the two methods equally after matching dates, then justify a midpoint because combining independent estimates reduces each method’s individual errors.
  2. Use the DCF range as the pricing anchor, then treat peer differences as confirmation that the lower estimate is more reliable.
  3. Use the peer range as the pricing anchor, then treat reinvestment uncertainty as a reason to discount the DCF evidence substantially.
  4. Increase forecast growth until the DCF reaches comparable values, then justify the aligned range using the agreement between both valuation methods.
  5. Test forecast reinvestment and retention, assess material peer differences, and justify a valuation range using the available evidence supporting each method.

Correct answer: E

The correct response evaluates both the operating forecast and the market comparison. Weak retention and lower margins can undermine a peer-multiple transfer; rapid growth without adequate reinvestment can inflate DCF value.

Rebuild assumptions where evidence warrants it, examine sensitivities, and explain how much weight each method deserves. No unique dollar price follows from the ranges alone. A negotiated financing price also depends on the rights and economic claims being sold.

A. Why this choice falls short

Matching dates is necessary but does not justify equal weighting or cancel substantive biases.

B. Why this choice falls short

The DCF also contains a questionable reinvestment assumption; a lower estimate is not automatically better supported.

C. Why this choice falls short

Market evidence is not automatically transferable to a firm with substantially different retention and margins.

D. Why this choice falls short

Forces agreement by changing an assumption to hit a price; agreement created this way is not independent support.

Related Week 5 deck

Valuation-method judgment

Hard (6/8)

W5-S096 · Source slide 96

An investment committee reviews two companies:

Each comparison uses the same valuation date, currency, and definition of enterprise or equity value. The committee wants a defensible price recommendation, not simply the highest model output.

Which recommendation best accounts for the strengths and limitations of the evidence?

CompanyOperating evidenceValuation evidence
LaunchlyNegative EPS in the latest year and throughout the forecast period; the company generates revenue, but the timing of profitability is uncertain.Revenue comps and a DCF produce similar enterprise-value ranges. The DCF's terminal value uses the same peer revenue multiple as the comps analysis.
HarborPositive EPS after excluding one-time items, with further EPS growth expected; greater operating risk and heavier reinvestment needs than peers.Harbor's PEG is 0.85 versus a peer median of 1.30, measured using consistent earnings bases and growth horizons.
  1. For Launchly, treat matching DCF and comps as independent confirmation of enterprise value; for Harbor, evaluate operating risk and reinvestment before concluding that its lower PEG indicates undervaluation.
  2. For Launchly, compare revenue multiples with scenario cash flows while examining shared assumptions; for Harbor, prefer its lower PEG because growth adjustment resolves the differences in operating risk.
  3. For Launchly, use revenue comps and scenario DCF while recognizing shared terminal assumptions; for Harbor, investigate risk and reinvestment before interpreting its lower PEG as evidence of undervaluation.
  4. For Launchly, prioritize DCF because discounting terminal proceeds removes dependence on current peer pricing; for Harbor, compare PEG after aligning the earnings base and the forecast growth horizon.
  5. For Launchly, equally weight DCF and revenue comps because neither method dominates the available evidence; for Harbor, transfer the peer PEG after matching industry and forecast earnings growth.

Correct answer: C

Launchly: Negative current and forecast EPS make conventional positive-earnings P/E and PEG comparisons unsuitable. Revenue multiples can be useful, but require assessment of margins, retention, growth quality, and reinvestment. Scenario DCF can still be informative despite negative near-term earnings if operating assumptions and uncertainty are modeled explicitly.

Its exit-multiple DCF combines discounted forecast cash flows with market-based terminal pricing. Because both analyses use the same peer multiple, their agreement does not supply two independent confirmations. Investigate the shared assumption and consider a sustainable-cash-flow terminal cross-check.

Harbor: Positive EPS after excluding one-time items, together with positive expected EPS growth, permits a conventional P/E–PEG comparison. A lower PEG can also reflect higher risk or cash-intensive growth; it does not establish undervaluation. Examine those differences and compare with a DCF whose cash flows reflect reinvestment.

P/E and PEG are relative-valuation metrics. DCF estimates value from cash flows and required returns, but its terminal assumptions must still be evaluated. A final financing price also depends on the rights being sold.

A. Why this choice falls short

The Launchly analyses share the same terminal multiple, so agreement is not independent confirmation. The Harbor recommendation alone does not rescue the combined choice.

B. Why this choice falls short

Dividing P/E by expected EPS growth does not remove the effects of operating risk or reinvestment. The supplied differences require analysis.

D. Why this choice falls short

Discounting a peer-based terminal value does not remove its reliance on the selected market multiple. Harbor’s bases and horizons are already aligned, leaving the substantive differences unresolved.

E. Why this choice falls short

Mechanical equal weighting can double-weight a shared assumption. Matching industry and growth does not resolve Harbor’s stated risk and reinvestment differences.

Related Week 5 deck

Full DCF and equity bridge

Hard (7/8)

W5-S100 · Source slide 100

Year-end FCFF is $2M in Year 1 and $3M in Year 2. An 8.0× exit EV/EBITDA multiple applies to Year 2 EBITDA of $5M. It estimates terminal EV at the end of Year 2, covering cash flows from Year 3 onward. WACC is 10%. Excess cash today is $4M and debt is $10M, with no other claims. What is equity value today, rounded to two decimals?

  1. $31.36M
  2. $37.36M
  3. $38.30M
  4. $28.88M

Correct answer: A

Terminal EV at Year 2 = 8.0 × $5M = $40M. EV today = 2 / 1.10 + (3 + 40) / 1.10² = $37.36M. Equity value = 37.36 + 4 − 10 = $31.36M.

B. Why this choice falls short

Stops at EV.

C. Why this choice falls short

Leaves terminal value undiscounted.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits the Year 2 FCFF. Year 2 FCFF and the terminal value both belong at the end of Year 2.

Source notes

Damodaran, Valuation lecture notes

Related Week 5 deck

Comparable multiple and equity bridge

Medium (4/8)

W5-S102 · Source slide 102

After analyzing comparable companies, you select 4.0× next-twelve-month revenue. The startup’s next-twelve-month revenue is $12M, trailing revenue is $8M, excess cash is $3M, and debt is $7M. The multiple is an enterprise-value multiple and no other claims exist. What is the indicated equity value?

  1. $44M
  2. $48M
  3. $28M
  4. $52M

Correct answer: A

EV = 4.0 × $12M = $48M. Equity value = 48 + 3 − 7 = $44M.

B. Why this choice falls short

Omits the equity bridge.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses trailing revenue with a forward multiple.

D. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts cash and adds debt.

Source notes

Damodaran, The Anatomy of a Multiple

Related Week 5 deck

Expected value

Easy (2/8)

W5-S104 · Source slide 104

Assumptions: All values are today’s equity values for the same claim. Scenarios are mutually exclusive and exhaustive.

Scenarios: failure 20% at $0, downside 25% at $15M, base 35% at $50M, upside 20% at $120M. What is the expected value?

  1. $46.25M
  2. $50.00M
  3. $36.25M
  4. $45.25M
  5. $61.75M

Correct answer: D

(0.20 x 0) + (0.25 x 15) + (0.35 x 50) + (0.20 x 120) = $45.25M.

Key takeaway: Expected value is the probability-weighted sum across scenarios, including failure at zero.

If the inputs were future exit values, the weighted result would still need an appropriate timing and discounting treatment.

A. Why this choice falls short

Fail the contribution check: $0M + $3.75M + $17.50M + $24M = $45.25M.

B. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes the base case for the expectation.

C. Why this choice falls short

Fail the contribution check: $0M + $3.75M + $17.50M + $24M = $45.25M.

E. Why this choice falls short

Fail the contribution check: $0M + $3.75M + $17.50M + $24M = $45.25M.

Related Week 5 deck

The three approaches

Easy (1/8)

W5-S107 · Source slide 107

For an early-stage venture, how do the three master approaches fit together?

  1. The cost approach is primary because assets are certain
  2. Only the market approach matters, since price is observable
  3. Use the method that fits the facts, then triangulate across methods
  4. The three always produce the same single number
  5. The income approach is irrelevant for growth companies

Correct answer: C

DCF can anchor value when cash flows are forecastable; market evidence checks the result; asset value matters when tangible assets or liquidation support are relevant.

Key takeaway: No method is automatically primary. Match the method to the company, then triangulate across independent evidence.

A. Why this choice falls short

Equates asset existence with reliable value.

B. Why this choice falls short

Overlooks comparability.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assumes automatic convergence.

E. Why this choice falls short

Excludes a useful method solely because the company is growing.

Related Week 5 deck

Terminal value as a share of EV

Medium (3/8)

W5-S109 · Source slide 109

A DCF has $10M of present value from explicit forecast FCFF and $30M of present value from terminal value. Which interpretation is correct?

  1. Terminal value represents 75% of EV, so the long-run assumptions deserve careful sensitivity analysis.
  2. Terminal value must fall between 60% and 80% of EV for any valid DCF.
  3. Terminal value should be removed because cash flows beyond the explicit forecast cannot contribute value.
  4. Equity value must equal $40M regardless of cash, debt, or other claims.

Correct answer: A

EV = $10M + $30M = $40M. The terminal share is $30M / $40M = 75%.

Key takeaway: This is the share in this particular model. Test long-run growth, reinvestment, discount rates, and exit assumptions.

B. Why this choice falls short

Invents a universal range.

C. Why this choice falls short

Discards future cash flows.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits the EV-to-equity bridge.

Related Week 5 deck

Historical stage-risk interpretation

Easy (1/8)

W5-S111 · Source slide 111

In Bhagat’s (2014) model, what can happen to the return applied to success-case proceeds as the probability of success increases, holding other assumptions constant?

  1. Rise steadily from seed to late stage
  2. Stay fixed at the market cost of equity
  3. Match CAPM closely at every stage
  4. Fall as the company de-risks
  5. Turn negative near an IPO

Correct answer: D

Bhagat models how a higher probability of success can lower the return applied to success-case proceeds, holding other assumptions constant.

Key takeaway: Risk resolution can reduce the required adjustment. A new financing stage does not automatically eliminate risk.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the conditional direction.

B. Why this choice falls short

Equate a VC pricing hurdle with an ordinary cost of equity.

C. Why this choice falls short

Equate a VC pricing hurdle with an ordinary cost of equity.

E. Why this choice falls short

A higher success probability can reduce the adjustment applied to success-case proceeds; it does not imply that the required return becomes negative near an IPO.

Source notes

Bhagat (2014), Why do venture capitalists use such high discount rates?

Related Week 5 deck

FCFF with a working-capital bridge

Medium (5/8)

P009 · New quantitative practice

All amounts are in millions. EBIT is 6.80, depreciation and amortization is 1.10, and capital expenditures are 1.90. Accounts receivable increases by 0.70, inventory by 0.35, and operating accounts payable by 0.45. Use a 25% tax rate on EBIT. There are no other operating working-capital changes or tax adjustments. Interest expense is 0.60 and new borrowing is 1.00. What is FCFF, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $4.70 million
  2. $3.25 million
  3. $3.70 million
  4. $2.60 million
  5. $4.90 million

Correct answer: C

Increase in operating NWC = 0.70 + 0.35 − 0.45 = 0.60. FCFF = EBIT × (1 − tax rate) + D&A − capex − ΔNWC = 6.80 × 0.75 + 1.10 − 1.90 − 0.60 = $3.70 million. Borrowing and interest are financing items.

A. Why this choice falls short

This includes new debt issuance in FCFF.

B. Why this choice falls short

This deducts after-tax interest even though FCFF is a pre-financing cash flow.

D. Why this choice falls short

This omits the depreciation add-back after using EBIT.

E. Why this choice falls short

This adds the working-capital investment rather than subtracting it.

Related Week 5 deck

FCFF with a working-capital bridge

Medium (5/8)

P021 · New quantitative practice

All amounts are in millions. EBIT is 8.40, depreciation and amortization is 1.30, and capital expenditures are 2.40. Accounts receivable increases by 0.90, inventory by 0.40, and operating accounts payable by 0.55. Use a 25% tax rate on EBIT. There are no other operating working-capital changes or tax adjustments. Interest expense is 0.60 and new borrowing is 1.00. What is FCFF, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $4.00 million
  2. $5.95 million
  3. $3.15 million
  4. $4.45 million
  5. $5.45 million

Correct answer: D

Increase in operating NWC = 0.90 + 0.40 − 0.55 = 0.75. FCFF = EBIT × (1 − tax rate) + D&A − capex − ΔNWC = 8.40 × 0.75 + 1.30 − 2.40 − 0.75 = $4.45 million. Borrowing and interest are financing items.

A. Why this choice falls short

This deducts after-tax interest even though FCFF is a pre-financing cash flow.

B. Why this choice falls short

This adds the working-capital investment rather than subtracting it.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the depreciation add-back after using EBIT.

E. Why this choice falls short

This includes new debt issuance in FCFF.

Related Week 5 deck

Incremental NPV of an advance payment

Hard (7/8)

P025 · New quantitative practice

A service company can collect $165,000 at each year-end for 3 years, or collect the entire undiscounted contract price today less a 17% prepayment discount. Prepayment alone creates a $9,600 administration cost today. Service delivery costs $34,000 at each year-end under either option. Use 21% as the appropriate annual opportunity cost of capital. Service obligations are identical, all cash is collected as scheduled, and there are no taxes or other cash flows. What is incremental NPV of prepayment over annual billing, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. −$93,750
  2. $59,051
  3. −$59,051
  4. −$11,463
  5. $68,651

Correct answer: B

Prepayment net cash today = 165,000 × 3 × 0.83 − 9,600 = $401,250. PV of annual receipts = 165,000 × [1 − (1 + 0.21)^(−3)] / 0.21 = $342,199.05. Incremental NPV = $401,250 − $342,199.05 = $59,051. Equal delivery-cost streams cancel.

A. Why this choice falls short

This compares undiscounted receipts instead of present values.

C. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the requested comparison: prepayment minus annual billing.

D. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts delivery costs from only one option even though those costs are identical.

E. Why this choice falls short

This omits the incremental upfront administration cost.

Related Week 5 deck

Project NPV with a terminal asset sale

Hard (6/8)

P026 · New quantitative practice

A project costs $350,000 today. Its year-end operating free cash flows are $120,000, $150,000, and $190,000 in Years 1–3. At the end of Year 3, it also generates $45,000 from an asset sale, stated after all taxes and selling costs. Use a 14% annual discount rate. The operating cash flows exclude the sale proceeds; there are no other flows. What is NPV today, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. $43,928
  2. −$1,072
  3. $29,302
  4. $379,302
  5. $155,000

Correct answer: C

NPV = −350,000 + 120,000/(1+0.14) + 150,000/(1+0.14)² + (190,000+45,000)/(1+0.14)³ = $29,302. The sale is added once, at the same date as the Year 3 operating cash flow.

A. Why this choice falls short

This treats the Year 3 asset sale as cash received today.

B. Why this choice falls short

This omits the separate terminal asset sale.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reports PV of future inflows without deducting the initial investment.

E. Why this choice falls short

This sums undiscounted cash flows.

Related Week 5 deck

Annualized return from one exit

Medium (3/8)

P029 · New quantitative practice

An investor pays $1.6 million today and receives a single $4.4 million distribution exactly 5 years later. There are no interim distributions, fees, taxes, or follow-on investments. The company reports a 40% revenue growth rate over the first year. What is the investor’s annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 40.0%
  2. 28.8%
  3. 22.4%
  4. 35.0%
  5. 175.0%

Correct answer: C

Solve −1.6 + 4.4/(1+IRR)^5 = 0. IRR = (4.4/1.6)^(1/5) − 1 = 22.4%. The timing and amount of investor cash flows determine IRR.

A. Why this choice falls short

Company revenue growth is not the investor’s cash-flow IRR.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses one fewer year than the actual holding period.

D. Why this choice falls short

This averages the total return arithmetically instead of compounding.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is the cumulative holding-period return, not annual IRR.

Related Week 5 deck

Incremental value of the larger project

Hard (6/8)

P030 · New quantitative practice

Two mutually exclusive projects have the same three-year life and risk. Project A costs $0.75 million today and pays $0.32 million at each of the next three year-ends. Project B costs $1.15 million today and pays $0.49 million at each year-end. Capital is available for either project, and there are no later cash flows. Use a 12% opportunity cost of capital. What is NPV(B) minus NPV(A), expressed in millions and rounded to three decimal places?

  1. −$0.008 million
  2. $0.110 million
  3. $0.408 million
  4. $0.027 million
  5. $0.008 million

Correct answer: E

Incremental investment = 0.40; incremental annual cash flow = 0.17. NPV(B−A) = −0.40 + 0.17 × [1−(1+0.12)^(−3)]/0.12 = $0.008 million. Comparing incremental NPV resolves the scale difference.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reverses B minus A.

B. Why this choice falls short

This compares undiscounted cash totals.

C. Why this choice falls short

This values incremental inflows but omits the larger initial investment.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reports Project B’s standalone NPV rather than its incremental NPV over A.

Related Week 5 deck

Incremental NPV of an advance payment

Hard (7/8)

P031 · New quantitative practice

A service company can collect $190,000 at each year-end for 4 years, or collect the entire undiscounted contract price today less a 16% prepayment discount. Prepayment alone creates a $12,500 administration cost today. Service delivery costs $42,000 at each year-end under either option. Use 19% as the appropriate annual opportunity cost of capital. Service obligations are identical, all cash is collected as scheduled, and there are no taxes or other cash flows. What is incremental NPV of prepayment over annual billing, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. −$134,100
  2. $13,748
  3. $137,069
  4. −$124,569
  5. $124,569

Correct answer: E

Prepayment net cash today = 190,000 × 4 × 0.84 − 12,500 = $625,900. PV of annual receipts = 190,000 × [1 − (1 + 0.19)^(−4)] / 0.19 = $501,331.25. Incremental NPV = $625,900 − $501,331.25 = $124,569. Equal delivery-cost streams cancel.

A. Why this choice falls short

This compares undiscounted receipts instead of present values.

B. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts delivery costs from only one option even though those costs are identical.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the incremental upfront administration cost.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the requested comparison: prepayment minus annual billing.

Related Week 5 deck

Project NPV with a terminal asset sale

Hard (6/8)

P032 · New quantitative practice

A project costs $420,000 today. Its year-end operating free cash flows are $135,000, $180,000, and $225,000 in Years 1–3. At the end of Year 3, it also generates $55,000 from an asset sale, stated after all taxes and selling costs. Use a 16% annual discount rate. The operating cash flows exclude the sale proceeds; there are no other flows. What is NPV today, rounded to the nearest dollar?

  1. $175,000
  2. $29,297
  3. −$25,703
  4. $9,533
  5. $429,533

Correct answer: D

NPV = −420,000 + 135,000/(1+0.16) + 180,000/(1+0.16)² + (225,000+55,000)/(1+0.16)³ = $9,533. The sale is added once, at the same date as the Year 3 operating cash flow.

A. Why this choice falls short

This sums undiscounted cash flows.

B. Why this choice falls short

This treats the Year 3 asset sale as cash received today.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the separate terminal asset sale.

E. Why this choice falls short

This reports PV of future inflows without deducting the initial investment.

Related Week 5 deck

Annualized return from one exit

Medium (3/8)

P035 · New quantitative practice

An investor pays $2.1 million today and receives a single $6.3 million distribution exactly 6 years later. There are no interim distributions, fees, taxes, or follow-on investments. The company reports a 40% revenue growth rate over the first year. What is the investor’s annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 24.6%
  2. 33.3%
  3. 20.1%
  4. 200.0%
  5. 40.0%

Correct answer: C

Solve −2.1 + 6.3/(1+IRR)^6 = 0. IRR = (6.3/2.1)^(1/6) − 1 = 20.1%. The timing and amount of investor cash flows determine IRR.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses one fewer year than the actual holding period.

B. Why this choice falls short

This averages the total return arithmetically instead of compounding.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the cumulative holding-period return, not annual IRR.

E. Why this choice falls short

Company revenue growth is not the investor’s cash-flow IRR.

Related Week 5 deck

Incremental value of the larger project

Hard (6/8)

P036 · New quantitative practice

Two mutually exclusive projects have the same three-year life and risk. Project A costs $0.90 million today and pays $0.39 million at each of the next three year-ends. Project B costs $1.30 million today and pays $0.55 million at each year-end. Capital is available for either project, and there are no later cash flows. Use a 14% opportunity cost of capital. What is NPV(B) minus NPV(A), expressed in millions and rounded to three decimal places?

  1. $0.029 million
  2. $0.080 million
  3. −$0.023 million
  4. $0.371 million
  5. −$0.029 million

Correct answer: E

Incremental investment = 0.40; incremental annual cash flow = 0.16. NPV(B−A) = −0.40 + 0.16 × [1−(1+0.14)^(−3)]/0.14 = $-0.029 million. Comparing incremental NPV resolves the scale difference.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reverses B minus A.

B. Why this choice falls short

This compares undiscounted cash totals.

C. Why this choice falls short

This reports Project B’s standalone NPV rather than its incremental NPV over A.

D. Why this choice falls short

This values incremental inflows but omits the larger initial investment.

Related Week 5 deck

Terminal value and the equity bridge

Hard (6/8)

P037 · New quantitative practice

A DCF forecasts cash flows through Year 3. The present value today of all Year 1–3 FCFF is $4.6 million. FCFF in Year 4, the first year after the explicit forecast, is expected to be $2.8 million and then grow at 3.0% annually forever. WACC is 13.0%. Excess cash today is $1.1 million and debt today is $3.5 million, with no other claims. What is equity value today, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $24.01 million
  2. $19.37 million
  3. $30.20 million
  4. $21.61 million
  5. $22.19 million

Correct answer: D

Terminal value at end of Year 3 = Year 4 FCFF/(WACC−g) = 2.8/(0.13−0.03) = 28.0000. Discount it three years: 28.0000/(1+0.13)³. Equity = 4.6 + discounted terminal value + 1.1 − 3.5 = $21.61 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is enterprise value; it omits the cash-and-debt bridge.

B. Why this choice falls short

The terminal value is at the end of Year 3, not Year 4.

C. Why this choice falls short

This fails to discount terminal value from the end of Year 3 to today.

E. Why this choice falls short

The cash flow is already Year 4 FCFF; growing it again advances it an extra year.

Related Week 5 deck

Full DCF with restricted cash

Hard (7/8)

P038 · New quantitative practice

Year-end FCFF in Years 1–3 is $-1.6, $0.8, and $3.1 million, respectively. Beginning in Year 4, FCFF grows at 3% annually forever from the Year 3 level. Use a constant 15% WACC. Current cash is $2.3 million, of which $0.7 million is restricted and must remain in operations; only the rest is excess. Current debt is $4.1 million. There are no other claims. What is current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $20.35 million
  2. $17.64 million
  3. $16.25 million
  4. $25.36 million
  5. $16.95 million

Correct answer: C

Year 4 FCFF = 3.1×1.03 = 3.193. TV₃ = 3.193/(0.15−.03) = 26.6083. PV(explicit FCFF) = 1.2519. Equity = 1.2519+26.6083/(1+0.15)³+(2.3−0.7)−4.1 = $16.25 million. Negative forecast cash flows remain in the valuation.

A. Why this choice falls short

This omits debt from the enterprise-to-equity bridge.

B. Why this choice falls short

This drops the negative Year 1 FCFF.

D. Why this choice falls short

This adds terminal value without discounting it to today.

E. Why this choice falls short

This adds restricted operating cash as though it were excess distributable cash.

Related Week 5 deck

Exit-multiple DCF

Hard (6/8)

P039 · New quantitative practice

The present value today of a company’s Year 1–4 FCFF is $6.4 million. At the end of Year 4, the business is assumed to sell for 8 times Year 4 EBITDA of $5.5 million. This multiple yields enterprise value. Use a 14% WACC. Current excess cash is $1.6 million and current debt is $6.2 million. Explicit FCFF excludes sale proceeds. What is current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $27.85 million
  2. $31.50 million
  3. $32.45 million
  4. $45.80 million
  5. $21.45 million

Correct answer: A

Exit EV₄ = 8×5.5 = 44.00. Current EV = 6.4+44.00/(1+0.14)⁴. Equity = EV + 1.6−6.2 = $27.85 million. The Year 4 operating cash flow and sale value are distinct cash-flow components.

B. Why this choice falls short

This discounts the exit for only three years.

C. Why this choice falls short

This reports enterprise value rather than equity value.

D. Why this choice falls short

This treats an end-of-Year-4 exit value as cash today.

E. Why this choice falls short

This includes the exit but omits the explicit forecast cash flows.

Related Week 5 deck

PEG from compound EPS growth

Medium (4/8)

P040 · New quantitative practice

A company trades at $96.00 per share. Current annual EPS is $4.00; forecast annual EPS three years from now is $6.912. Revenue is expected to grow 30% per year, and the peer median P/E is 19×. For this question, use the company’s current EPS in P/E and annual compound growth from current EPS to the Year 3 EPS forecast in PEG. Enter growth as percentage points, such as 20 for 20%. What is PEG, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 0.99
  2. 0.69
  3. 0.95
  4. 0.80
  5. 1.20

Correct answer: E

Current P/E = 96/4 = 24.00×. EPS CAGR = (6.912/4)^(1/3)−1 = 20.0000%. PEG = 24.00/(0.200000×100) = 1.20. A PEG comparison still requires comparable growth horizons and risk.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses an arithmetic average instead of compound annual EPS growth.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses Year 3 EPS to calculate P/E despite the stated current-EPS convention.

C. Why this choice falls short

This substitutes the peer median P/E for the subject company’s P/E.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses revenue growth instead of EPS growth.

Related Week 5 deck

PEG after forecast share dilution

Hard (7/8)

P041 · New quantitative practice

A firm trades at $84.00 per share. Current net income available to common shareholders is $160 million and current diluted shares are 50 million. Three years from now, forecast common net income is $280 million and diluted shares are 56 million. Use current diluted EPS for P/E and three-year compound diluted-EPS growth for PEG; enter growth in percentage points. What is PEG, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 0.47
  2. 1.64
  3. 163.66
  4. 1.05
  5. 1.28

Correct answer: B

Current EPS = 160/50 = 3.2000. Year 3 EPS = 280/56 = 5.0000. EPS CAGR = (5.0000/3.2000)^(1/3)−1 = 16.0397%. Current P/E = 26.2500. PEG = P/E divided by CAGR in percentage points = 1.64.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses three-year total EPS growth rather than annual compound growth.

C. Why this choice falls short

This inputs growth as a decimal rather than percentage points, inflating PEG by 100×.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses forecast EPS in P/E instead of the required current EPS.

E. Why this choice falls short

This uses growth in total net income and ignores forecast share dilution.

Related Week 5 deck

Normalized EBITDA and comparable value

Medium (4/8)

P042 · New quantitative practice

A company reports EBITDA of $4.20 million. This includes a one-time legal expense of $0.60 million and a nonrecurring gain of $0.35 million. Treat both as nonrecurring for this exercise. Apply a 7.5× EV/EBITDA multiple to normalized EBITDA. Excess cash is $1.2 million and debt is $4.0 million, with no other claims. What is indicated equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $30.58 million
  2. $28.70 million
  3. $33.38 million
  4. $35.82 million
  5. $21.57 million

Correct answer: A

Normalized EBITDA = 4.20+0.60−0.35 = 4.45. EV = 4.45×7.5. Equity = EV + 1.2−4.0 = $30.58 million. Normalization removes both unusual costs and unusual gains.

B. Why this choice falls short

This applies the multiple before normalizing the one-time items.

C. Why this choice falls short

This gives enterprise value before the cash-and-debt bridge.

D. Why this choice falls short

This adds a nonrecurring gain instead of removing it.

E. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts the one-time expense again instead of adding it back.

Related Week 5 deck

Consistent revenue basis in comparable valuation

Medium (4/8)

P043 · New quantitative practice

Comparable-company analysis supports 4.5× next-twelve-month revenue for the subject’s risk and growth profile. The subject has trailing-twelve-month revenue of $6.1 million and next-twelve-month revenue of $7.8 million. The multiple yields enterprise value. Excess cash is $2.1 million and debt is $5.8 million. No other claims exist. What is indicated current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $38.80 million
  2. $43.00 million
  3. $35.10 million
  4. $23.75 million
  5. $31.40 million

Correct answer: E

Use the revenue period corresponding to the comparable multiple: EV = 4.5×7.8 = 35.10. Equity = EV+excess cash−debt = 35.10+2.1−5.8 = $31.40 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the excess-cash and debt adjustments.

B. Why this choice falls short

This adds debt even though debt holders have a prior claim.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is enterprise value before the bridge to equity.

D. Why this choice falls short

This applies a forward revenue multiple to trailing revenue.

Related Week 5 deck

VC pricing after future dilution

Hard (7/8)

P044 · New quantitative practice

A VC invests $5 million today. At the end of Year 5, projected exit enterprise value is $110 million, exit debt is $14 million, and exit excess cash is $4 million. The investor targets a 30% annual return and expects a future financing to reduce its percentage ownership by 25% relative to its post-investment stake today. Assume no interim distributions, preferences, or other dilution. What current pre-money equity value is consistent with these assumptions, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $21.93 million
  2. $20.20 million
  3. $17.22 million
  4. $15.20 million
  5. $25.00 million

Correct answer: D

Exit equity = 110+4−14 = 100. Required exit ownership = 5×(1+0.3)^5/100. Divide by 0.75 to obtain today’s post-investment stake, 24.7529%. Post-money = 5/stake; pre-money = post-money−5 = $15.20 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the investor’s future ownership dilution.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is post-money value; the question asks for pre-money value.

C. Why this choice falls short

This treats exit enterprise value as exit equity value.

E. Why this choice falls short

This treats the annual target return as simple interest instead of compounding it over the holding period.

Related Week 5 deck

Terminal value and the equity bridge

Hard (6/8)

P045 · New quantitative practice

A DCF forecasts cash flows through Year 3. The present value today of all Year 1–3 FCFF is $5.3 million. FCFF in Year 4, the first year after the explicit forecast, is expected to be $3.2 million and then grow at 3.5% annually forever. WACC is 14.5%. Excess cash today is $1.4 million and debt today is $4.2 million, with no other claims. What is equity value today, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $21.88 million
  2. $22.56 million
  3. $24.68 million
  4. $31.59 million
  5. $19.43 million

Correct answer: A

Terminal value at end of Year 3 = Year 4 FCFF/(WACC−g) = 3.2/(0.145−0.035) = 29.0909. Discount it three years: 29.0909/(1+0.145)³. Equity = 5.3 + discounted terminal value + 1.4 − 4.2 = $21.88 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

The cash flow is already Year 4 FCFF; growing it again advances it an extra year.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is enterprise value; it omits the cash-and-debt bridge.

D. Why this choice falls short

This fails to discount terminal value from the end of Year 3 to today.

E. Why this choice falls short

The terminal value is at the end of Year 3, not Year 4.

Related Week 5 deck

Full DCF with restricted cash

Hard (7/8)

P046 · New quantitative practice

Year-end FCFF in Years 1–3 is $-1.9, $1.1, and $3.6 million, respectively. Beginning in Year 4, FCFF grows at 3% annually forever from the Year 3 level. Use a constant 16% WACC. Current cash is $2.6 million, of which $0.8 million is restricted and must remain in operations; only the rest is excess. Current debt is $4.7 million. There are no other claims. What is current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $17.66 million
  2. $16.86 million
  3. $21.56 million
  4. $18.50 million
  5. $27.11 million

Correct answer: B

Year 4 FCFF = 3.6×1.03 = 3.708. TV₃ = 3.708/(0.16−.03) = 28.5231. PV(explicit FCFF) = 1.4859. Equity = 1.4859+28.5231/(1+0.16)³+(2.6−0.8)−4.7 = $16.86 million. Negative forecast cash flows remain in the valuation.

A. Why this choice falls short

This adds restricted operating cash as though it were excess distributable cash.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits debt from the enterprise-to-equity bridge.

D. Why this choice falls short

This drops the negative Year 1 FCFF.

E. Why this choice falls short

This adds terminal value without discounting it to today.

Related Week 5 deck

Exit-multiple DCF

Hard (6/8)

P047 · New quantitative practice

The present value today of a company’s Year 1–4 FCFF is $7.2 million. At the end of Year 4, the business is assumed to sell for 9 times Year 4 EBITDA of $6.2 million. This multiple yields enterprise value. Use a 16% WACC. Current excess cash is $1.9 million and current debt is $7.1 million. Explicit FCFF excludes sale proceeds. What is current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $25.62 million
  2. $57.80 million
  3. $37.75 million
  4. $38.02 million
  5. $32.82 million

Correct answer: E

Exit EV₄ = 9×6.2 = 55.80. Current EV = 7.2+55.80/(1+0.16)⁴. Equity = EV + 1.9−7.1 = $32.82 million. The Year 4 operating cash flow and sale value are distinct cash-flow components.

A. Why this choice falls short

This includes the exit but omits the explicit forecast cash flows.

B. Why this choice falls short

This treats an end-of-Year-4 exit value as cash today.

C. Why this choice falls short

This discounts the exit for only three years.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reports enterprise value rather than equity value.

Related Week 5 deck

PEG from compound EPS growth

Medium (4/8)

P048 · New quantitative practice

A company trades at $132.00 per share. Current annual EPS is $6.00; forecast annual EPS three years from now is $9.585. Revenue is expected to grow 28% per year, and the peer median P/E is 19×. For this question, use the company’s current EPS in P/E and annual compound growth from current EPS to the Year 3 EPS forecast in PEG. Enter growth as percentage points, such as 20 for 20%. What is PEG, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 1.10
  2. 0.79
  3. 0.81
  4. 1.12
  5. 1.30

Correct answer: E

Current P/E = 132/6 = 22.00×. EPS CAGR = (9.585/6)^(1/3)−1 = 16.8998%. PEG = 22.00/(0.168998×100) = 1.30. A PEG comparison still requires comparable growth horizons and risk.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses an arithmetic average instead of compound annual EPS growth.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses revenue growth instead of EPS growth.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses Year 3 EPS to calculate P/E despite the stated current-EPS convention.

D. Why this choice falls short

This substitutes the peer median P/E for the subject company’s P/E.

Related Week 5 deck

PEG after forecast share dilution

Hard (7/8)

P049 · New quantitative practice

A firm trades at $108.00 per share. Current net income available to common shareholders is $210 million and current diluted shares are 60 million. Three years from now, forecast common net income is $350 million and diluted shares are 70 million. Use current diluted EPS for P/E and three-year compound diluted-EPS growth for PEG; enter growth in percentage points. What is PEG, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 0.72
  2. 1.66
  3. 1.71
  4. 2.44
  5. 244.42

Correct answer: D

Current EPS = 210/60 = 3.5000. Year 3 EPS = 350/70 = 5.0000. EPS CAGR = (5.0000/3.5000)^(1/3)−1 = 12.6248%. Current P/E = 30.8571. PEG = P/E divided by CAGR in percentage points = 2.44.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses three-year total EPS growth rather than annual compound growth.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses growth in total net income and ignores forecast share dilution.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses forecast EPS in P/E instead of the required current EPS.

E. Why this choice falls short

This inputs growth as a decimal rather than percentage points, inflating PEG by 100×.

Related Week 5 deck

Normalized EBITDA and comparable value

Medium (4/8)

P050 · New quantitative practice

A company reports EBITDA of $5.30 million. This includes a one-time legal expense of $0.80 million and a nonrecurring gain of $0.40 million. Treat both as nonrecurring for this exercise. Apply a 8.0× EV/EBITDA multiple to normalized EBITDA. Excess cash is $1.5 million and debt is $5.0 million, with no other claims. What is indicated equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $38.90 million
  2. $42.10 million
  3. $29.30 million
  4. $48.50 million
  5. $45.60 million

Correct answer: B

Normalized EBITDA = 5.30+0.80−0.40 = 5.70. EV = 5.70×8.0. Equity = EV + 1.5−5.0 = $42.10 million. Normalization removes both unusual costs and unusual gains.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies the multiple before normalizing the one-time items.

C. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts the one-time expense again instead of adding it back.

D. Why this choice falls short

This adds a nonrecurring gain instead of removing it.

E. Why this choice falls short

This gives enterprise value before the cash-and-debt bridge.

Related Week 5 deck

Consistent revenue basis in comparable valuation

Medium (4/8)

P051 · New quantitative practice

Comparable-company analysis supports 5.0× next-twelve-month revenue for the subject’s risk and growth profile. The subject has trailing-twelve-month revenue of $7.4 million and next-twelve-month revenue of $9.6 million. The multiple yields enterprise value. Excess cash is $2.7 million and debt is $6.9 million. No other claims exist. What is indicated current equity value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $52.20 million
  2. $32.80 million
  3. $48.00 million
  4. $57.60 million
  5. $43.80 million

Correct answer: E

Use the revenue period corresponding to the comparable multiple: EV = 5.0×9.6 = 48.00. Equity = EV+excess cash−debt = 48.00+2.7−6.9 = $43.80 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the excess-cash and debt adjustments.

B. Why this choice falls short

This applies a forward revenue multiple to trailing revenue.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is enterprise value before the bridge to equity.

D. Why this choice falls short

This adds debt even though debt holders have a prior claim.

Related Week 5 deck

VC pricing after future dilution

Hard (7/8)

P052 · New quantitative practice

A VC invests $7 million today. At the end of Year 4, projected exit enterprise value is $140 million, exit debt is $18 million, and exit excess cash is $6 million. The investor targets a 28% annual return and expects a future financing to reduce its percentage ownership by 20% relative to its post-investment stake today. Assume no interim distributions, preferences, or other dilution. What current pre-money equity value is consistent with these assumptions, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $34.72 million
  2. $40.68 million
  3. $41.30 million
  4. $31.15 million
  5. $38.15 million

Correct answer: D

Exit equity = 140+6−18 = 128. Required exit ownership = 7×(1+0.28)^4/128. Divide by 0.80 to obtain today’s post-investment stake, 18.3501%. Post-money = 7/stake; pre-money = post-money−7 = $31.15 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This treats exit enterprise value as exit equity value.

B. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the investor’s future ownership dilution.

C. Why this choice falls short

This treats the annual target return as simple interest instead of compounding it over the holding period.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is post-money value; the question asks for pre-money value.

Related Week 5 deck

Week 6: Equity Valuation, Cap Tables, and Deal Terms

Issued and fully diluted ownership

Medium (4/8)

W6-S005 · Source slide 5

A founder owns 3.6M of 6M issued shares. The agreed fully diluted count also includes 0.6M granted options and a separate 1.4M ungranted reserve. Which ownership pair is correct?

  1. 60% of issued shares and 60% on the fully diluted basis
  2. 45% of issued shares and 45% on the fully diluted basis
  3. 60% of issued shares and 45% on the fully diluted basis
  4. 45% of issued shares and 60% on the fully diluted basis
  5. 60% of issued shares and 54.55% on the fully diluted basis

Correct answer: C

Issued ownership is 3.6M / 6M = 60%. Fully diluted ownership is 3.6M / 8M = 45%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores both option categories.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses the fully diluted denominator twice.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the bases.

E. Why this choice falls short

Includes granted options but omits the ungranted reserve.

Source notes

Cooley: issued versus fully diluted.

Related Week 6 deck

Financing price and share count

Medium (3/8)

W6-S008 · Source slide 8

Assumptions: The pricing model has 6M issued shares plus 2M included option rights and reserve shares. Total authorization is 10M. Use the stated fully diluted pricing basis.

A company is worth $12 million in equity value and has 8 million fully diluted shares. What is the per-share price?

  1. $0.67
  2. $2.00
  3. $1.20
  4. $1.50
  5. $6.00

Correct answer: D

The pricing basis is 8M fully diluted shares. $12M / 8M = $1.50.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses numerator and denominator.

B. Why this choice falls short

Omits 2M included rights.

C. Why this choice falls short

Counts authorization beyond the agreed capitalization.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits issued shares.

Source notes

Illustrative inputs. Calculations follow the stated assumptions.

Related Week 6 deck

Issued and fully diluted ownership

Hard (7/8)

W6-S011 · Source slide 11

Before a financing, a company has the following capitalization:

Security or reserveShares or common-equivalent shares
Founder common shares, issued6,000,000
Seed preferred shares, issued and convertible 1:12,000,000
Granted but unexercised employee options750,000
Ungranted option reserve750,000
Unexercised warrants500,000

The charter authorizes 20 million shares. The parties price a $5 million primary investment at a $20 million pre-money valuation using all five rows in the fully diluted denominator. Count each instrument at its stated share amount. Ignore any cash the company could receive from exercising options or warrants; do not reduce their share counts for such proceeds.

No existing instrument is exercised or converted at closing, and no pool change occurs. New investors receive newly issued shares, each representing one common-equivalent share. For issued ownership, use common-equivalent issued shares only.

What are the price per new share and the founders' post-financing fully diluted and issued ownership percentages?

  1. Price: $2.50; founder ownership: 50.00% fully diluted and 60.00% issued.
  2. Price: $1.00; founder ownership: 24.00% fully diluted and 46.15% issued.
  3. Price: $2.00; founder ownership: 57.14% fully diluted and 48.00% issued.
  4. Price: $2.00; founder ownership: 48.00% fully diluted and 57.14% issued.
  5. Price: $2.00; founder ownership: 60.00% fully diluted and 75.00% issued.

Correct answer: D

Pre-financing fully diluted shares = 6 + 2 + 0.75 + 0.75 + 0.5 = 10 million. Price = $20 million / 10 million = $2.00. New shares = $5 million / $2 = 2.5 million.

Holder or reservePost-round FD shares, millionsPost-round FD percentage
Founders6.0048%
Seed investors2.0016%
Granted options0.756%
Ungranted reserve0.756%
Warrants0.504%
New investors2.5020%
Total12.50100%

Issued common-equivalent shares after closing = 6 + 2 + 2.5 = 10.5 million. Founder issued ownership = 6/10.5 = 57.14%. Authorized but unissued capacity is not an additional owner. The reserve is included only in the agreed fully diluted convention.

A. Why this choice falls short

Prices the financing using only the 8 million issued shares, excluding the agreed options, reserve, and warrants.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats all 20 million authorized shares as existing fully diluted ownership.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the issued and fully diluted ownership denominators.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reports the founders’ pre-financing percentages and ignores the new shares.

Related Week 6 deck

Ownership and board rights

Medium (4/8)

W6-S014 · Source slide 14

Founders own 70% of the shares. They designate two directors, investors designate two, and one is independent. A budget requires three of five director votes and no separate stockholder consent. The founder nominees vote yes and investor nominees vote no. Which conclusion follows?

  1. The independent director's vote determines whether the budget has enough board support.
  2. The founders' 70% ownership supplies majority approval despite the split among directors.
  3. The two investor votes block approval even if the independent director votes yes.
  4. The budget must go to stockholders because founder and investor nominees are tied.
  5. The independent director may vote only after each stockholder group approves the budget.

Correct answer: A

The budget needs three director votes. The two affirmative votes need one more. The founders' economic ownership does not supply an additional board vote.

B. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes equity ownership for board votes.

C. Why this choice falls short

Invents an investor veto.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds a stockholder vote.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds a prerequisite to the independent director's vote.

Source notes

Kaplan & Strömberg (2003), published abstract; Cooley's Series Seed investment agreement.

Related Week 6 deck

Two preferred series

Medium (4/8)

W6-S017 · Source slide 17

Assumptions: No debt, fees, dividends, or other claims. Series B closed after Series A.

Series A has a $2M preference claim and Series B a $1M claim. Both stay preferred. The charter ranks them equally and allocates insufficient proceeds in proportion to their preference claims. How should $2.4M available to equity be allocated?

  1. Series A receives $2.0M and Series B receives $0.4M.
  2. Series A receives $1.4M and Series B receives $1.0M.
  3. Series A receives $1.2M and Series B receives $1.2M.
  4. Series A receives $1.6M and Series B receives $0.8M.
  5. Series A receives $2.0M and Series B receives $1.0M.

Correct answer: D

The claims total $3M. Series A receives two-thirds of $2.4M and Series B one-third, producing $1.6M and $0.8M.

A. Why this choice falls short

Gives Series A priority.

B. Why this choice falls short

Gives Series B priority.

C. Why this choice falls short

Mistakes equal priority for equal dollars.

E. Why this choice falls short

Pays more than the available proceeds.

Source notes

Cooley: liquidation preference; NVCA: model financing documents.

Related Week 6 deck

Participation and common proceeds

Easy (0/8)

W6-S020 · Source slide 20

Assumptions: Compare ordinary uncapped participating and nonparticipating preferred with the same investment, ownership, and 1x preference.

How does participating preferred differ from nonparticipating preferred for the common holders?

  1. Participating preferred receives only its ownership percentage of the total exit.
  2. Participating preferred takes its preference instead of sharing any remaining proceeds.
  3. Participating preferred shares the residual after common first recovers invested capital.
  4. Participating preferred increases its preference automatically when the next valuation rises.
  5. Participating preferred receives its preference and then shares the remaining proceeds.

Correct answer: E

The investor receives the preference and then its agreed share of the residual. Nonparticipating preferred instead compares preference with conversion.

A. Why this choice falls short

Describes conversion alone.

B. Why this choice falls short

Describes the preference-only route.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reverses priority.

D. Why this choice falls short

Invents an automatic preference adjustment.

Source notes

Cooley: liquidation preference.

Related Week 6 deck

Participating exit proceeds

Medium (4/8)

W6-S023 · Source slide 23

Assumptions: The $20M is available to equity after other claims. One preferred series, uncapped participation, common owns the remaining 75%, and no dividends.

A $5M investor holds 25% via 1x participating preferred. At a $20M exit, what do common holders receive?

  1. $15.00M
  2. $10.00M
  3. $11.25M
  4. $8.75M
  5. $3.75M

Correct answer: C

The investor first receives $5M. Common receives 75% × ($20M − $5M) = $11.25M. Investor proceeds are $8.75M, so the payout reconciles to $20M.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores participation.

B. Why this choice falls short

Applies participation to proceeds before deducting the preference.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reports the wrong holder's total.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses the investor's residual percentage.

Source notes

Cooley: liquidation preference.

Related Week 6 deck

Capped participating preferred

Hard (6/8)

W6-S026 · Source slide 26

An investor paid $4 million for preferred shares representing 25% ownership on an as-converted basis. The shares have a 1× participating liquidation preference, with total proceeds under the preferred payout capped at 2× the original investment.

After the investor receives its initial preference, it participates in the remaining proceeds at 25% until the total payout cap is reached. The investor may instead convert fully to common and receive 25% of the entire equity distribution; the participation cap does not apply after conversion.

Consider two independent exits: one leaves $20 million available to equity and the other leaves $44 million. Both amounts are after debt, transaction costs, and all other claims. There are no other preferred securities.

What payout will the investor elect at each exit?

  1. At the $20 million exit: $8.00 million; at the $44 million exit: $8.00 million.
  2. At the $20 million exit: $8.00 million; at the $44 million exit: $14.00 million.
  3. At the $20 million exit: $5.00 million; at the $44 million exit: $11.00 million.
  4. At the $20 million exit: $5.00 million; at the $44 million exit: $14.00 million.
  5. At the $20 million exit: $8.00 million; at the $44 million exit: $11.00 million.

Correct answer: E

The preferred payout is the lesser of $4 million + 25% × (equity proceeds − $4 million) and the $8 million total cap, when enough proceeds exist to pay the initial preference. Compare that payout with conversion in each scenario.

Equity proceedsUncapped participationCapped preferred payoutConversionElected payout
$20 million$8 million$8 million$5 million$8 million
$44 million$14 million$8 million$11 million$11 million

The investor keeps the preferred payout at the smaller exit and converts at the larger exit.

A. Why this choice falls short

Treats the participation cap as limiting proceeds even after optional conversion.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the cap and uses uncapped participation at the larger exit.

C. Why this choice falls short

Converts at both exits even though the preferred payout is better at the smaller exit.

D. Why this choice falls short

Converts prematurely at the smaller exit and uses uncapped participation at the larger exit, instead of comparing the permitted capped payout with conversion in each case.

Related Week 6 deck

A delayed priced round

Easy (1/8)

W6-S029 · Source slide 29

A company issued a convertible note and an unmodified YC post-money SAFE. The note reaches its contractual maturity before the next priced financing. Which assessment is correct?

  1. Both instruments require repayment once the next priced financing is delayed beyond note maturity.
  2. Both instruments extend automatically until the company completes its next priced equity financing.
  3. Only the SAFE accrues interest while the company waits for another priced financing.
  4. Both instruments automatically convert at their caps when the note reaches contractual maturity.
  5. The note's maturity terms need review. The SAFE has no maturity deadline.

Correct answer: E

The note is debt with contractual maturity provisions. The standard YC SAFE has no maturity date. Repayment, extension, or conversion of the note depends on its terms and any agreement.

A. Why this choice falls short

Gives the SAFE a debt deadline.

B. Why this choice falls short

Assumes an automatic extension.

C. Why this choice falls short

Assigns interest to the SAFE.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assumes a conversion event the facts do not provide.

Source notes

Y Combinator: SAFE documents and terms; Cooley: pricing a round with convertibles.

Related Week 6 deck

Cap versus discount

Medium (3/8)

W6-S032 · Source slide 32

A note uses the lower of its cap price and discounted round price. The new-round price is $2.00, the discount is 25%, and the cap price is $1.80. Which conversion price follows the agreement?

  1. $1.80
  2. $1.65
  3. $1.35
  4. $2.00
  5. $1.50

Correct answer: E

The discount price is $2.00 × 75% = $1.50, below the $1.80 cap price.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assumes the cap always wins.

B. Why this choice falls short

Invents averaging.

C. Why this choice falls short

Stacks alternative terms.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores both negotiated protections.

Source notes

Cooley: pricing a round with convertibles; Cooley: valuation caps and preference overhang.

Related Week 6 deck

SAFE financing sequence

Medium (4/8)

W6-S035 · Source slide 35

A company issues a second YC-style post-money valuation-cap SAFE and later raises a priced equity round. The cap price governs both SAFEs, and the option pool does not change. Which sequence correctly describes dilution?

  1. The later SAFE dilutes earlier SAFEs. The priced round dilutes only founders.
  2. The later SAFE dilutes current stockholders. The priced round dilutes both SAFE holders.
  3. Both steps dilute only current stockholders because the SAFE ownership percentages remain fixed.
  4. Both steps dilute founders and existing SAFE holders proportionately from their previous stakes.
  5. The later SAFE leaves all modeled ownership unchanged until the priced round occurs.

Correct answer: B

Post-money cap SAFE stakes are additive before the new round. The new cash then expands the capitalization and dilutes converted SAFE holders along with existing holders.

A. Why this choice falls short

Incorrectly impose SAFE-to-SAFE dilution.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats the pre-round SAFE percentage as permanent.

D. Why this choice falls short

Incorrectly impose SAFE-to-SAFE dilution.

E. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the additional claim created by issuing the SAFE.

Source notes

Y Combinator: SAFE documents and terms; Y Combinator: post-money SAFE mechanics.

Related Week 6 deck

Post-money SAFEs

Hard (7/8)

W6-S038 · Source slide 38

Founders initially own all of a company's shares. It then issues two post-money SAFEs:

SAFE A: $600,000 invested at a $6 million post-money valuation cap.

SAFE B: $400,000 invested at an $8 million post-money valuation cap.

Both SAFEs convert at their valuation caps. The share count used to apply each cap includes shares from both SAFE conversions, but excludes the new priced-round shares and the later option reserve. Neither SAFE has a discount or interest. No other securities or option reserve exist before these transactions.

The priced-round investor then receives newly issued shares representing 20% of the company immediately after that investment. Afterward, a new option reserve is created equal to 10% of the final fully diluted capitalization, diluting every then-existing holder proportionately.

What are the founders', SAFE A's, and SAFE B's final fully diluted ownership percentages?

  1. Founders: 61.20%; SAFE A: 7.20%; SAFE B: 3.60%.
  2. Founders: 68.00%; SAFE A: 8.00%; SAFE B: 4.00%.
  3. Founders: 59.50%; SAFE A: 7.00%; SAFE B: 3.50%.
  4. Founders: 62.61%; SAFE A: 6.26%; SAFE B: 3.13%.
  5. Founders: 61.20%; SAFE A: 10.00%; SAFE B: 5.00%.

Correct answer: A

After SAFE conversion, SAFE A owns $0.6/$6 = 10%, SAFE B owns $0.4/$8 = 5%, and founders own 85%.

The priced financing leaves earlier holders with 80% of their prior stakes. The subsequent pool leaves every then-existing holder with 90% of its prior stake.

Holder or reserveAfter SAFE conversionAfter priced financingFinal, after pool
Founders85%68%61.2%
SAFE A10%8%7.2%
SAFE B5%4%3.6%
Priced-round investor—20%18.0%
New option reserve——10.0%
Total100%100%100%

The question specifies a pool created after the priced round. A pre-money pool requirement would be a different transaction.

B. Why this choice falls short

Accounts for the priced round but ignores the subsequent option reserve.

C. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the 20% financing and 10% pool percentages instead of applying dilution sequentially.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats both caps as pre-money values on a fixed original share base, producing pre-financing stakes of 1/1.15, 0.10/1.15, and 0.05/1.15 instead of the stated post-money ownership.

E. Why this choice falls short

Dilutes founders but incorrectly protects the SAFEs from later financing and pool dilution.

Related Week 6 deck

Convertible-note conversion

Hard (7/8)

W6-S043 · Source slide 43

A company has 4 million founder shares and 1 million seed-investor shares, all on a 1:1 common-equivalent basis. It has no options, warrants, or other convertibles except the note described below.

A financing raises $3 million at a fixed price of $3.00 per share. The price was negotiated using a $15 million valuation of the existing 5 million shares and excludes the converting note; it will not be recalculated after conversion.

At closing, the note has been outstanding for 18 months. It has $900,000 principal and accrues 8% annual simple interest; no interest has been paid in cash. Principal and accrued interest both convert at the lower of:

A 20% discount to the financing price; or

A $10 million valuation cap divided by the existing 5 million shares.

The discount is not applied again to the cap price. All newly issued and converting shares count one-for-one as common-equivalent shares.

How many shares does the note receive, and what is the founders' ownership percentage immediately after both the note conversion and the new investment?

  1. Note conversion: 450,000 shares; founder ownership: 62.02%.
  2. Note conversion: 504,000 shares; founder ownership: 61.50%.
  3. Note conversion: 420,000 shares; founder ownership: 62.31%.
  4. Note conversion: 630,000 shares; founder ownership: 60.33%.
  5. Note conversion: 486,000 shares; founder ownership: 61.67%.

Correct answer: B

Accrued interest = $900,000 × 8% × 1.5 = $108,000. Converting claim = $1,008,000.

Discount price = $3 × 80% = $2.40. Cap price = $10 million / 5 million = $2.00. The lower price governs, producing 504,000 note shares. New-money shares = $3 million / $3 = 1 million.

HolderPost-round sharesOwnership
Founders4,000,00061.50%
Seed investors1,000,00015.38%
Note holder504,0007.75%
New investor1,000,00015.38%
Total6,504,000100% before rounding

The fixed share-price convention makes this calculation determinate. A different contractual capitalization definition could produce a different cap table.

A. Why this choice falls short

Converts principal only and omits accrued interest.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses the discount price even though the cap price is lower.

D. Why this choice falls short

Applies the discount a second time to the cap price.

E. Why this choice falls short

Accrues interest for only one year rather than 18 months.

Related Week 6 deck

Preference amount and denominator

Medium (3/8)

W6-S046 · Source slide 46

Assumptions: The note contains $500K original principal and $40K accrued interest. Measure the effective preference multiple against original cash invested.

A $500K note converts to 360,000 shares priced at $1.50, but those shares carry a $2.00 liquidation preference. What is the effective preference multiple?

  1. 1.08x
  2. 0.75x
  3. 2.00x
  4. 1.33x
  5. 1.44x

Correct answer: E

Preference equals 360,000 × $2.00 = $720K. Against original cash, $720K / $500K = 1.44x.

A. Why this choice falls short

Measures growth in the note balance.

B. Why this choice falls short

Compares two share prices.

C. Why this choice falls short

Confuses a per-share dollar amount with a multiple.

D. Why this choice falls short

Uses the converting balance rather than original cash.

Source notes

Cooley: valuation caps and preference overhang.

Related Week 6 deck

Conversion terms and preference

Medium (4/8)

W6-S049 · Source slide 49

Founders want to preserve a note holder's agreed conversion share count but limit its aggregate liquidation preference to the converting balance. Which negotiated term accomplishes both?

  1. Set preference per share equal to the converting balance divided by converted shares.
  2. Reduce converted shares until their full-price preference equals the converting balance.
  3. Keep the full-price preference and cap the investor's later common conversion proceeds.
  4. Use the original cash principal as the denominator when reporting the preference.
  5. Keep the full-price preference but remove participation in the remaining exit proceeds.

Correct answer: A

The proposed per-share preference times the unchanged share count equals the converting balance.

B. Why this choice falls short

Changing ownership changes conversion economics rather than directly limiting the dollar liquidation preference created by the conversion terms.

C. Why this choice falls short

Changing conversion upside is distinct from specifying the preference amount payable while the security remains preferred.

D. Why this choice falls short

Changing reporting labels does not change the contractual payout rights.

E. Why this choice falls short

Changes residual participation. None of those satisfies both stated objectives.

Source notes

Cooley: valuation caps and preference overhang; Y Combinator: post-money SAFE mechanics.

Related Week 6 deck

Option-pool pricing

Medium (4/8)

W6-S053 · Source slide 53

Assumptions: Hold pre-money valuation and new cash fixed. Include the pool increase in the pricing capitalization. No convertibles or special protection rights alter the allocation.

An investor requires the new option pool to be created pre-money. What is the effect on the founders?

  1. Founders and the new investor share the increase according to their post-round ownership.
  2. Founder ownership changes only when employees later exercise options granted from the reserve.
  3. Existing pre-money holders absorb the increase before the new investor's shares are priced.
  4. The reserve replaces planned investor shares and preserves the founders' original ownership percentage.
  5. The added reserve raises the investor's share price and reduces the shares it purchases.

Correct answer: C

Including the pool increase in the pre-money denominator lowers the financing price and assigns that increase to existing holders.

A. Why this choice falls short

Describes a pool added after financing.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the pricing reserve.

D. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes a mechanism the terms do not provide.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the effect on share price.

Source notes

Cooley: negotiating the option pool.

Related Week 6 deck

The option-pool top-up

Hard (7/8)

W6-S057 · Source slide 57

A startup has the following pre-financing fully diluted capitalization:

Holder or reserveShares
Founders6,000,000
Seed investors2,000,000
Granted options500,000
Ungranted option reserve500,000

The proposed financing has three terms:

New investment: $6 million at an $18 million pre-money valuation.

The ungranted reserve alone must equal 12.5% of fully diluted shares immediately after closing. Granted options do not count toward this target.

Any additional reserve is created before the investment and included in the share count used to price the new shares.

All shares and options count one-for-one as common-equivalent shares. There are no other securities, conversions, exercises, or transactions. The listed amounts remain unchanged except for the required reserve increase.

How many additional shares must be added to the ungranted reserve, and what will the founders' fully diluted ownership percentage be after closing? Round ownership to two decimal places.

  1. Additional reserve: 714,286 shares; founder ownership: 46.32%.
  2. Additional reserve: 600,000 shares; founder ownership: 46.88%.
  3. Additional reserve: 1,000,000 shares; founder ownership: 46.15%.
  4. Additional reserve: 1,200,000 shares; founder ownership: 44.12%.
  5. Additional reserve: 1,800,000 shares; founder ownership: 41.67%.

Correct answer: D

Let x be the additional reserve in millions of shares. Pre-round FD shares are 9 + x. Because the new investment is one-third of pre-money value, new shares equal (9 + x)/3, and post-round shares equal (9 + x) × 4/3.

The reserve condition is (0.5 + x) / [(9 + x) × 4/3] = 12.5%. Solving gives x = 1.200000 million shares.

Holder or reservePost-round FD shares, millionsOwnership
Founders6.044.12%
Seed investors2.014.71%
Granted options0.53.68%
Ungranted reserve1.712.50%
New investor3.425.00%
Total13.6100% before rounding

Price = $18 million / 10.2 million = $1.76470588; new shares = 3.4 million. The pre-money pool expansion dilutes the pre-round holders, while the new investor still receives 25%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Sizes the reserve to 12.5% of pre-round shares instead of post-round shares.

B. Why this choice falls short

Counts granted options toward a requirement that expressly applies only to the ungranted reserve.

C. Why this choice falls short

Prices the new shares before creating the top-up, then adds a pool that also dilutes the new investor.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats the existing ungranted reserve as zero when solving the required additional reserve.

Related Week 6 deck

Ownership after new cash

Hard (6/8)

W6-S061 · Source slide 61

Before a priced round, the agreed capitalization contains 9M common equivalents excluding one SAFE, including 5M founder shares. A $1M YC-style post-money SAFE has a $10M cap, which governs conversion. New cash investors receive 20% of post-closing ownership. With no other capitalization changes, what do founders and SAFE holders own after closing?

  1. Founders: 44.44%. SAFE holders: 8.00%.
  2. Founders: 40.00%. SAFE holders: 8.00%.
  3. Founders: 40.00%. SAFE holders: 10.00%.
  4. Founders: 41.67%. SAFE holders: 8.33%.
  5. Founders: 30.00%. SAFE holders: 8.00%.

Correct answer: B

The SAFE represents $1M / $10M = 10% before new cash. Total common equivalents are 9M / 90% = 10M. Founders hold 5M / 10M = 50%. New cash leaves each prior stake at 80% of its size: founders 40%, SAFE holders 8%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits the SAFE from the founders' initial denominator.

C. Why this choice falls short

Keeps the SAFE's percentage fixed.

D. Why this choice falls short

Divides prior percentages by 1.20.

E. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts 20 percentage points from founders.

Source notes

Y Combinator: post-money SAFE mechanics.

Related Week 6 deck

Full-ratchet adjustment

Easy (0/8)

W6-S064 · Source slide 64

Assumptions: The lower-price issuance triggers the full-ratchet clause. No exception or waiver applies.

In a down round, how does full-ratchet antidilution treat the earlier investor's conversion price?

  1. It keeps the old price until new financing exceeds the previous round's size.
  2. It weights the old and new prices using the number of shares issued.
  3. It resets the conversion price to the new lower price for the covered issuance.
  4. It reduces the liquidation preference amount while leaving the conversion price unchanged.
  5. It reduces the conversion price by the percentage decline in headline company valuation.

Correct answer: C

A covered lower-price issuance triggers the reset to that lower price, without weighting the adjustment by issuance size.

A. Why this choice falls short

Adds an unstated size threshold.

B. Why this choice falls short

Describes weighted average.

D. Why this choice falls short

Changes a different term.

E. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes headline valuations for the protected per-share price.

Source notes

Cooley: full ratchet.

Related Week 6 deck

A small down round

Medium (4/8)

W6-S067 · Source slide 67

Assumptions: Compare separate otherwise identical cases. No waiver or exception applies.

An earlier preferred series has a $2 conversion price. A small covered financing issues only 10,000 shares at $1. How does full ratchet differ from weighted-average protection?

  1. Neither adjusts the conversion price because the new issuance is too small.
  2. Both reset to $1 because they respond only to the lower price.
  3. Full ratchet makes a smaller adjustment than weighted average for small issuances.
  4. Full ratchet resets to $1. Weighted average also considers the issuance size.
  5. Weighted average resets to $1. Full ratchet also considers the issuance size.

Correct answer: D

Full ratchet uses the covered $1 price even for a small issuance. Weighted average considers that issuance relative to the defined capitalization.

A. Why this choice falls short

Adds a size exemption.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats both clauses as full ratchet.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reverses their relative effect.

E. Why this choice falls short

Swaps the mechanisms.

Source notes

Cooley: broad-based weighted average; Cooley: down rounds and the adjustment formula; Cooley: full ratchet.

Related Week 6 deck

An unused pro-rata right

Easy (1/8)

W6-S070 · Source slide 70

An investor has a pro-rata purchase right but no financing veto. The company makes the required offer, and the investor declines before the offer expires. What follows?

  1. Its percentage is preserved through additional shares issued without further payment.
  2. Its percentage can fall because the right offered a chance to invest.
  3. The company must cancel the financing because the investor declined its allocation.
  4. Its liquidation preference increases automatically to compensate for the smaller ownership percentage.
  5. It can buy the missed allocation later at the previous financing's price.

Correct answer: B

The investor had an opportunity to purchase more securities on the offered terms. Declining that opportunity does not prevent dilution or stop the financing under the stated facts.

A. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes free shares for a purchase.

C. Why this choice falls short

Invents a veto.

D. Why this choice falls short

Confuses participation rights with preference protection.

E. Why this choice falls short

Invents a continuing right at an old price.

Source notes

Cooley's Series Seed investment agreement; Y Combinator: SAFE documents and terms.

Related Week 6 deck

A pro-rata check changes the round size

Medium (4/8)

W6-S073 · Source slide 73

An existing investor owns 15% on the agreed fully diluted basis. New outside investors will contribute exactly $3.4m in a primary round. The existing investor may invest an additional amount at the same share price to preserve its 15%. No options, conversions, or other capitalization changes occur.

How much must the existing investor contribute?

  1. $0.510 million.
  2. $0.600 million.
  3. $0.690 million.
  4. $0.400 million.
  5. $3.910 million.

Correct answer: B

Let x be the investor's additional check. To preserve 15%, it must buy 15% of all new shares: x / ($3.4m + x) = 15%.

0.85x = $0.51m, so x = $0.60m. The full round is $4m and the investor buys 15% of its new shares.

A. Why this choice falls short

Applies 15% only to outside money.

C. Why this choice falls short

Increases the correct check again.

D. Why this choice falls short

Understates the required purchase.

E. Why this choice falls short

Adds the outside raise to the mistaken $0.51m check.

Related Week 6 deck

Sale approvals

Medium (4/8)

W6-S076 · Source slide 76

A sale requires board approval and consent from holders of a majority of preferred shares. The drag-along activates only after both. The board votes 4–1 for the sale, including the preferred investor's nominee. No preferred-stockholder vote or written consent has occurred. What remains necessary before invoking the drag-along?

  1. Obtain consent from holders of the required majority of preferred shares.
  2. Record the preferred nominee's board vote as the required preferred-holder consent.
  3. Invoke the drag-along so it supplies the preferred consent after board approval.
  4. Obtain common-holder majority approval in place of the separate preferred-holder consent.
  5. Certify the 4–1 board vote as satisfying both majority approval requirements.

Correct answer: A

The nominee voted as a director. That board vote does not itself constitute the required preferred-stockholder consent. The drag-along condition still lacks its second approval.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats a director's vote as stockholder consent.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses the drag-along before its trigger.

D. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes the common class.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats two approval requirements as one board vote.

Source notes

Cooley's Series Seed investment agreement; NVCA: model financing documents.

Related Week 6 deck

Vesting after the cliff

Medium (4/8)

W6-S079 · Source slide 79

A founder receives 4.8M shares. Vesting is 25% at month 12, then 1/48 of the original grant each month. The founder leaves immediately after month 18 vesting. The company exercises its right to repurchase all unvested shares at cost. No acceleration applies. How many shares does the founder retain?

  1. 1.2M shares
  2. 4.8M shares
  3. 0.6M shares
  4. 3.0M shares
  5. 1.8M shares

Correct answer: E

The cliff vests 25% × 4.8M = 1.2M shares. Six more months add 6 × (4.8M / 48) = 0.6M. The founder keeps 1.8M vested shares, and the company repurchases the other 3.0M.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores vesting after the cliff.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats the cliff as full vesting.

C. Why this choice falls short

Counts only the six later months.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reports the unvested shares the company repurchases.

Source notes

Cooley: founders' stock and vesting.

Related Week 6 deck

Restricted stock election

Easy (0/8)

W6-S082 · Source slide 82

A founder receives eligible substantially nonvested stock today. The first vesting date is next year. Which action and effect correctly describe a section 83(b) election?

  1. File within 30 days of transfer to choose current compensation-income treatment.
  2. File within 30 days of first vesting to fix the original share value.
  3. File with the next tax return to have every unvested share treated as vested.
  4. File before the eventual sale to qualify automatically for a capital-gains exclusion.
  5. File within 30 days of transfer to eliminate the agreement's repurchase provision.

Correct answer: A

The election generally uses the transfer date for the 30-day deadline and elects current income based on transfer-date fair value less the amount paid.

B. Why this choice falls short

Starts the clock at vesting.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses the tax-return deadline and changes vesting.

D. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes QSBS-like relief.

E. Why this choice falls short

Changes a contractual repurchase term the election does not change.

Source notes

IRS: Form 15620 and instructions; IRS: section 83(b) tax treatment. U.S. federal rules reviewed September 23, 2026.

Related Week 6 deck

Founder exit proceeds

Hard (7/8)

W6-S084 · Source slide 84

Founders own all of a company before choosing between two financing offers. Each investor provides $4 million of new primary capital.

TermOffer AOffer B
Pre-money valuation$16 million$20 million
Liquidation preference1× nonparticipating2× uncapped participating
Participation after preferenceNone; investor may convertInvestor shares in the remainder at its as-converted ownership

There are no options, convertibles, later rounds, dividends, or additional preferences. Under either offer, the company is later sold for an enterprise value of $24 million. At that time it has $4 million of debt, $2 million of transaction costs, and no excess cash. Compare that same exit under each offer.

What would the founders receive under Offers A and B, respectively, rounded to the nearest $0.01 million?

  1. Offer A founder proceeds: $14.40 million; Offer B founder proceeds: $15.00 million.
  2. Offer A founder proceeds: $14.00 million; Offer B founder proceeds: $10.00 million.
  3. Offer A founder proceeds: $14.00 million; Offer B founder proceeds: $8.33 million.
  4. Offer A founder proceeds: $19.20 million; Offer B founder proceeds: $13.33 million.
  5. Offer A founder proceeds: $14.00 million; Offer B founder proceeds: $11.67 million.

Correct answer: C

Equity proceeds available at exit = $24 million − $4 million − $2 million = $18 million.

Offer A: Investor ownership = $4/($16 + $4) = 20%. Conversion would yield $3.6 million, below the $4 million preference. The investor takes $4 million; founders receive $14 million.

Offer B: Investor ownership = $4/($20 + $4) = 1/6. The investor first receives $8 million, then 1/6 of the $10 million remainder: total $9.666667 million. Founders receive 5/6 of the remainder, or $8.333333 million.

The higher headline pre-money value does not produce higher founder proceeds at this exit. Choosing between complete offers still requires considering other exits, financing needs, and governance.

A. Why this choice falls short

Treats both securities as common equity and ignores their preferences.

B. Why this choice falls short

Pays Offer B’s 2× preference but omits the investor’s subsequent participation.

D. Why this choice falls short

Distributes the $24 million enterprise sale price without first paying debt and transaction costs.

E. Why this choice falls short

Applies a 1× preference to Offer B rather than the stated 2× preference.

Related Week 6 deck

Pre-money and post-money

Easy (2/8)

W6-S088 · Source slide 88

Assumptions: One primary cash financing. No converting instruments, pool changes, secondary sales, or other capitalization adjustments.

An investor puts $4M into a company at a $16M pre-money valuation. What percentage does the investor own?

  1. 25.00%
  2. 20.00%
  3. 16.67%
  4. 80.00%
  5. 33.33%

Correct answer: B

Post-money value is $16M + $4M = $20M. New investor ownership is $4M / $20M = 20%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses the value before investment.

C. Why this choice falls short

Counts the new cash twice, dividing by $24M.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reports existing ownership.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides by $12M after subtracting instead of adding cash.

Source notes

Cooley: pricing a round with convertibles.

Related Week 6 deck

Participation cap and conversion

Hard (6/8)

W6-S090 · Source slide 90

Assumptions: One preferred series. No debt, fees, dividends, or other claims.

An investor paid $3M for 25% ownership with 1x participating preferred and a 2x total participation cap. It may instead convert to common. At an exit with $32M available to equity, which payout should it choose?

  1. $6.00M
  2. $8.00M
  3. $10.25M
  4. $11.00M
  5. $3.00M

Correct answer: B

The preferred route is capped at $6M. Conversion pays 25% × $32M = $8M, so conversion pays more.

A. Why this choice falls short

Extends the cap to conversion.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the cap.

D. Why this choice falls short

Also participates in the preference dollars.

E. Why this choice falls short

Leaves the more valuable conversion election unused.

Source notes

Cooley: liquidation preference.

Related Week 6 deck

Note conversion and founder ownership

Hard (6/8)

W6-S092 · Source slide 92

Assumptions: Same founder shares, note balance, discount, headline pre-money, and new cash. No other securities. Fixed pre-money sets price from existing shares. Fixed post-money instead preserves the incoming investor's cash / (pre-money + cash) ownership.

Compared with the fixed pre-money method, the fixed post-money conversion method does what to founders?

  1. The lower new-money price issues more note and investor shares, reducing founder ownership.
  2. The lower new-money price issues fewer investor shares, protecting the founders' remaining ownership.
  3. The unchanged headline pre-money valuation keeps founder ownership identical under both pricing methods.
  4. The fixed investor percentage reduces note shares and transfers the dilution to note holders.
  5. The fixed post-money value gives founders additional shares to offset the note's conversion.

Correct answer: A

Holding the incoming investor's percentage fixed requires a lower price in this scenario. More note and new-money shares then dilute the unchanged founder share count.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the price/share relationship.

C. Why this choice falls short

Confuses a headline valuation with the final cap table.

D. Why this choice falls short

Contradicts discounted conversion mechanics.

E. Why this choice falls short

Invents a compensating founder issuance.

Source notes

Cooley: pricing a round with convertibles.

Related Week 6 deck

Ownership after two rounds

Easy (2/8)

W6-S094 · Source slide 94

Assumptions: No pool increase, conversion, or other capitalization change.

A founder owns 75% before two financings. The rounds dilute existing holders by 20% and then 25%. The founder does not invest, sell, or receive new shares. What percentage remains?

  1. 30.00%
  2. 56.25%
  3. 45.00%
  4. 41.25%
  5. 75.00%

Correct answer: C

Retained ownership is 75% × 80% × 75% = 45%. The stake loses 30 percentage points, equal to 40% of its original size.

A. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts dilution as percentage points.

B. Why this choice falls short

Applies only the second round.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds the dilution rates before applying them.

E. Why this choice falls short

Assumes no dilution because the founder sold no personal shares.

Source notes

Illustrative inputs. Calculations follow the stated assumptions.

Related Week 6 deck

Financing packages and founder proceeds

Hard (6/8)

W6-S096 · Source slide 96

Assumptions: One preferred series in each alternative. No debt, fees, dividends, options, or other claims.

Each offer invests $4M. Founders own the remaining shares.

OfferPre-money valueInvestor ownershipPreference
A$16M20%1x nonparticipating
B$36M10%2x uncapped participating

At an exit with $12M available to equity, which statement is correct?

  1. Offer B pays founders more because their higher percentage applies to the entire exit.
  2. Offer B pays founders more because both investors recover only their original $4M.
  3. Offer A pays founders more because its investor receives only 20% of the exit.
  4. Both offers pay founders equally because the same investment creates the same preference.
  5. Offer A pays founders more because its lower preference leaves more residual proceeds.

Correct answer: E

A's investor takes max($4M, 20% × $12M) = $4M, leaving founders $8M. B's investor takes $8M + 10% × $4M = $8.4M, leaving founders $3.6M.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores preferences.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores B's 2x claim and participation.

C. Why this choice falls short

Chooses the right offer for the wrong payout reason.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores different preference terms.

Source notes

Cooley: liquidation preference. Illustrative contract terms and calculations.

Related Week 6 deck

Uncapped participation and conversion

Medium (4/8)

W6-S099 · Source slide 99

Assumptions: One ordinary uncapped participating series with positive preference and ownership between 0% and 100%. No special conversion requirements.

On plain uncapped participating preferred, why is conversion usually economically unattractive in an acquisition?

  1. Because the preference amount increases automatically in proportion to the eventual exit value.
  2. Because conversion preserves the preference and also adds a share of total proceeds.
  3. Because participation applies to the entire exit before any liquidation preference is deducted.
  4. Because participation retains the preference and adds a share of the remaining proceeds.
  5. Because the investor's as-converted ownership percentage decreases automatically when an acquisition closes.

Correct answer: D

When proceeds X cover preference P, participation pays P + f(X − P), while conversion pays fX. The difference is P(1 − f). Below P, preferred takes available proceeds in this model.

A. Why this choice falls short

Makes a fixed preference variable.

B. Why this choice falls short

Assumes conversion retains the preference.

C. Why this choice falls short

Overstates the participation base.

E. Why this choice falls short

Invents an exit-triggered ownership reduction.

Source notes

Cooley: liquidation preference.

Related Week 6 deck

Weighted-average denominator

Medium (4/8)

W6-S102 · Source slide 102

An earlier series has a $4 conversion price. A covered round sells 2M shares for $4M. Use CPnew = CPold × (A + B) / (A + C), with B = 1M and C = 2M. Which prices result from A = 18M versus A = 8M?

  1. A = 18M: $3.60. A = 8M: $3.80.
  2. A = 18M: $2.00. A = 8M: $2.00.
  3. A = 18M: $3.80. A = 8M: $3.60.
  4. A = 18M: $4.00. A = 8M: $4.00.
  5. A = 18M: $4.21. A = 8M: $4.44.

Correct answer: C

With A = 18M, $4 × 19/20 = $3.80. With A = 8M, $4 × 9/10 = $3.60. The broader base softens the reset.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the bases.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses full ratchet.

D. Why this choice falls short

Makes no adjustment.

E. Why this choice falls short

Inverts the formula's fraction.

Source notes

Cooley: down rounds and the adjustment formula.

Related Week 6 deck

QSBS holding period

Easy (0/8)

W6-S106 · Source slide 106

Practice convention

Apply the stated federal rules to a hypothetical sale after the required holding period; ignore state tax differences. All other QSBS requirements are assumed satisfied.

An eligible individual sells otherwise qualifying QSBS acquired after July 4, 2025 after holding it for three and a half years. Under the rules reviewed in September 2026, which statement is correct?

  1. No gain qualifies until the stock has been held for five full years.
  2. 75% of eligible gain qualifies because the holding period rounds up to four years.
  3. 100% of eligible gain qualifies because the shares satisfy the QSBS business tests.
  4. 50% of eligible gain qualifies, subject to the applicable per-issuer gain limit.
  5. 50% of the total sale proceeds qualifies, subject to the applicable gain limit.

Correct answer: D

Three and a half years falls in the at-least-three but less-than-four-year band. The 50% exclusion applies to eligible gain within the limit.

A. Why this choice falls short

Applies the older holding-period framework.

B. Why this choice falls short

Rounds a statutory threshold upward.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the holding-period percentage.

E. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes sale proceeds for gain.

Source notes

26 U.S.C. § 1202. U.S. federal rules reviewed September 23, 2026.

Reference: California FTB summary of federal tax changes, section 1202. The question applies the federal holding-period rule, not California conformity.

Related Week 6 deck

Spot the false premise in the original question

W6-S108 · Source slide 108

Assumptions: This is an intentional error-detection exercise. Evaluate the premise before choosing a letter; the original wording and options are preserved below.

Why is founder dilution across several rounds greater than the sum of each round viewed alone?

  1. Each round dilutes a base that already holds all prior rounds
  2. Because the early rounds are always larger than the later ones
  3. Because the option pool is the single true source of dilution
  4. Because founders sell personal shares at each successive round
  5. Because preferred stock is left out of the share count entirely

Explanation · ungraded

Answer: The question has a false premise. None of A–E makes it true.

For sequential dilution rates d₁ and d₂, cumulative dilution is 1 − (1 − d₁)(1 − d₂) = d₁ + d₂ − d₁d₂. For positive rates below 100%, it is LESS than their sum.

A. Why this choice falls short

Points toward repeated changes in the share base, but cannot make the stem's 'greater than' claim true.

B. Why this choice falls short

Rounds need not be ordered from largest to smallest, and round size does not make compounded percentage dilution exceed the sum.

C. Why this choice falls short

New investor shares and other share issuances can dilute ownership; an option pool is not the only source. The arithmetic premise remains false.

D. Why this choice falls short

Dilution can occur when the company issues new shares even if founders sell none of their own. Secondary founder sales are a separate transaction.

E. Why this choice falls short

Preferred shares normally count on the stated as-converted or fully diluted basis. Omitting them would misstate ownership, not justify the question's claim.

Related Week 6 deck

Fully diluted ownership after a priced round

Medium (4/8)

P053 · New quantitative practice

Before financing, a company has 6.0 million founder shares, 1.0 million issued employee shares, and 1.0 million unissued shares reserved for options. The round uses a $16 million pre-money valuation and includes the entire existing option reserve in the fully diluted pre-money share count. An investor puts in $4 million. There is no pool top-up or other security. What is founders’ post-round fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 80.00%
  2. 60.00%
  3. 75.00%
  4. 66.67%
  5. 50.00%

Correct answer: B

Pre-money fully diluted shares = 8.00 million. Price = 16/8 = $2.0000. New shares = 4/2.0000 = 2.0000 million. Founder ownership = 6/(8+2.0000) = 60.00%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is the percentage held by all pre-round fully diluted holders, not founders alone.

C. Why this choice falls short

This gives the pre-round founder percentage.

D. Why this choice falls short

This omits the unissued option reserve from post-round fully diluted shares.

E. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts an investment/pre-money ratio instead of issuing new shares and recomputing the denominator.

Related Week 6 deck

Founder ownership across two financings

Easy (2/8)

P054 · New quantitative practice

Founders initially own 72% of fully diluted equity. A Series A investor receives 20% of the company immediately after its financing. Later, Series B investors receive 25% of the company immediately after their financing. Founders do not invest further or sell existing shares. There are no option-pool changes, convertibles, or other capitalization changes. What percentage do founders own after Series B, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 54.00%
  2. 43.20%
  3. 57.60%
  4. 39.60%
  5. 27.00%

Correct answer: B

Founders retain (1−0.2) of their prior stake after Series A and then (1−0.25) after Series B. Final founder stake = 0.72×0.8×0.75 = 43.20%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies only Series B dilution.

C. Why this choice falls short

This stops after Series A and ignores Series B.

D. Why this choice falls short

This adds dilution rates instead of compounding the two rounds.

E. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts percentage points from founder ownership instead of applying each round to the remaining stake.

Related Week 6 deck

Pre-money option-pool top-up and founder dilution

Hard (7/8)

P055 · New quantitative practice

Current fully diluted shares total 8.0 million, including 5.5 million founder shares and 0.5 million unallocated option-pool shares. A new investor invests $6 million at a $18 million pre-money valuation. Before pricing, the unallocated pool is increased so that it equals 15% of post-financing fully diluted shares. All top-up shares are included in the pre-money denominator used to set the new share price. No other changes occur. What is founders’ final fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 44.00%
  2. 51.56%
  3. 58.67%
  4. 47.41%
  5. 41.25%

Correct answer: A

Let x be new pool shares in millions. Post-financing shares = (8+x)×(1+6/18). Solve 0.5+x = 0.15×(8+x)×1.333333, giving x=1.375000. Founder ownership = 5.5/[(8+1.375000)×1.333333] = 44.00%.

B. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the pre-money option-pool top-up.

C. Why this choice falls short

This includes the top-up but omits new investor shares.

D. Why this choice falls short

This sizes the reserve as a percentage of old pre-money shares instead of final post-financing shares.

E. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts the entire target pool again even though an existing pool is already included.

Related Week 6 deck

Post-money SAFEs followed by new equity

Medium (4/8)

P056 · New quantitative practice

Founders own all equity before two post-money SAFEs: $0.75 million at a $7.5 million post-money cap and $0.60 million at a $10.0 million post-money cap. For this simplified cap-binding model, each SAFE buys its investment divided by its own cap immediately before the priced round; the SAFEs do not dilute one another. The priced round then sells 20% of post-round equity to new investors. There is no option pool or other dilution. What is final founder ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 84.00%
  2. 64.00%
  3. 67.20%
  4. 67.68%
  5. 80.00%

Correct answer: C

SAFE ownership before the priced round is 10.0000%+6.0000%. Founder ownership before the round is 84.0000%. Multiply by 80% retained after the round: 67.20%. The capitalization convention is stipulated to avoid document-specific SAFE ambiguities.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is founder ownership before the priced-round dilution.

B. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts priced-round dilution as percentage points instead of multiplying the remaining founder stake.

D. Why this choice falls short

This sequentially dilutes the SAFEs, contrary to the stated post-money convention.

E. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the SAFE ownership sold before the round.

Related Week 6 deck

Convertible note with interest, cap, and discount

Hard (6/8)

P057 · New quantitative practice

A note has principal of $0.8 million and simple annual interest of 8% for 1.5 years. Both principal and accrued interest convert. New investors pay $3.00 per share. The note converts at the lower of a 20% discount to that price or a $10 million valuation cap divided by 5 million pre-conversion fully diluted shares. The cap denominator excludes the note itself and new-round shares. How many shares does the note receive, rounded to the nearest share?

  1. 400,000 shares
  2. 298,667 shares
  3. 373,333 shares
  4. 560,000 shares
  5. 448,000 shares

Correct answer: E

Conversion balance = 0.8×(1+0.08×1.5) = 0.8960 million. Discount price = $2.40; cap price = $2.00. Use $2.00. Shares = 0.8960 million / 2.00 = 448,000.

A. Why this choice falls short

This excludes accrued interest from the conversion amount.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses the new investors’ price without either note protection.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses the discount price even though the cap produces a lower conversion price.

D. Why this choice falls short

This applies the discount to the cap price, stacking protections that are alternatives.

Related Week 6 deck

Nonparticipating preferred at exit

Medium (4/8)

P058 · New quantitative practice

An investor paid $4 million for 25% ownership on an as-converted basis. Its preferred shares carry a 1.5× nonparticipating liquidation preference. At exit, $28 million is available to distribute after all debt and transaction costs. The investor may either take its preference or convert to common, but cannot do both. There are no other preferred claims. How much does the investor receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $7.00 million
  2. $11.50 million
  3. $21.00 million
  4. $13.00 million
  5. $6.00 million

Correct answer: A

Preference payout = 4×1.5 = 6.00. Conversion payout = 0.25×28 = 7.00. Nonparticipating preferred elects the larger: $7.00 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This treats nonparticipating preferred as participating preferred.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is the payout to other holders, not the preferred investor.

D. Why this choice falls short

This pays both the full preference and full as-converted share.

E. Why this choice falls short

This chooses the less valuable option rather than the greater available payout.

Related Week 6 deck

Uncapped participating preferred proceeds

Medium (4/8)

P059 · New quantitative practice

A preferred investor paid $3 million and owns 20% on an as-converted basis. The shares have a 1× participating liquidation preference with no participation cap. The exit produces $24 million for shareholders after debt and costs. The investor receives its preference first and then participates in the remaining proceeds at its as-converted percentage. No other preferred claims exist. What is the investor’s distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $3.00 million
  2. $7.20 million
  3. $16.80 million
  4. $7.80 million
  5. $4.80 million

Correct answer: B

First pay 3 million. Remaining proceeds = 24−3 = 21. Investor participation = 0.2×21. Total = 3+0.2×21 = $7.20 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This pays only the preference and ignores participation.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is the distribution to the other shareholders.

D. Why this choice falls short

This calculates participation on all exit proceeds, double-counting the preference amount.

E. Why this choice falls short

This assumes straight conversion and omits participation after the preference.

Related Week 6 deck

Participation cap versus voluntary conversion

Hard (6/8)

P060 · New quantitative practice

An investor paid $4 million for 25% as-converted ownership. It has a 1× participating preference capped at 2× its original investment in total distributions while remaining preferred. It may instead convert to common and take its uncapped as-converted percentage. Exit proceeds available to shareholders are $40 million; there are no other preferred claims. What is the investor’s optimal payout, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $8.00 million
  2. $10.00 million
  3. $14.00 million
  4. $30.00 million
  5. $13.00 million

Correct answer: B

Uncapped participation would pay 4+0.25×(40−4) = 13.00, but preferred proceeds are capped at 8.00. Conversion pays 0.25×40 = 10.00. Choose $10.00 million. The preferred cap does not cap the separate common-conversion alternative.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies the preferred cap but ignores the higher available conversion payout.

C. Why this choice falls short

This gives the investor both its preference and a full common share of total exit proceeds.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the payout to the remaining shareholders.

E. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the participation cap while retaining preferred status.

Related Week 6 deck

Equal-ranking preference claims in a shortfall

Easy (2/8)

P061 · New quantitative practice

Series A and Series B have equal-ranking nonparticipating liquidation-preference claims of $6.0 million and $4.0 million. Exit cash available to shareholders is only $7.0 million. The documents allocate a preference shortfall pro rata to the dollar size of the claims, and neither series converts. Common shareholders receive nothing until both claims are paid. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $6.00 million
  2. $3.50 million
  3. $2.80 million
  4. $4.20 million
  5. $3.00 million

Correct answer: D

Series A’s claim fraction = 6/(6+4). Multiply by available cash of 7: Series A receives $4.20 million. Equal-ranking claims share the shortfall proportionately.

A. Why this choice falls short

This pays Series A in full despite the equal-ranking shortfall allocation.

B. Why this choice falls short

Equal ranking does not mean equal dollars when claim sizes differ.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is Series B’s pro-rata payout.

E. Why this choice falls short

This incorrectly pays Series B first as a senior claim.

Related Week 6 deck

Senior and junior liquidation preferences

Easy (2/8)

P062 · New quantitative practice

An exit provides $7.5 million after debt and transaction costs. Series B has a senior liquidation claim of $5.0 million. Series A has a junior liquidation claim of $4.0 million. Both are nonparticipating, and neither converts. The documents pay Series B in full before Series A; common is paid last. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $2.50 million
  2. $4.00 million
  3. $0.00 million
  4. $5.00 million
  5. $3.33 million

Correct answer: A

Pay senior Series B 5.00 first. Remaining proceeds = 7.50−5.00 = 2.50. Series A receives the lesser of that remainder and its 4.00 claim: $2.50 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This pays Series A in full although insufficient cash remains after the senior claim.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is the residual for common holders after preferences.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the senior Series B claim, not Series A’s payout.

E. Why this choice falls short

This uses a pro-rata split even though the claims have different seniority.

Related Week 6 deck

Full-ratchet protection and founder ownership

Hard (6/8)

P063 · New quantitative practice

Founders hold 6.0 million common shares. An earlier investor holds 2.0 million preferred shares, originally convertible one-for-one at a $4.00 conversion price. A down round raises $4.0 million at $2.00 per share. Full-ratchet protection resets the earlier conversion price to the down-round price; its new conversion ratio equals old conversion price divided by new conversion price. No pool or other securities exist. What is founders’ fully diluted ownership after the round, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 42.86%
  2. 66.67%
  3. 50.00%
  4. 33.33%
  5. 60.00%

Correct answer: C

Earlier common-equivalent shares = 2×4/2 = 4.00 million. New-round shares = 4/2 = 2.00 million. Founder stake = 6/(6+4.00+2.00) = 50.00%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This counts both the original and adjusted common-equivalent shares instead of replacing the original conversion amount.

B. Why this choice falls short

This prices the new investment at the old price and ignores anti-dilution protection.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the earlier investor’s ownership, not founders’ ownership.

E. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the ratchet increase in common-equivalent shares.

Related Week 6 deck

Broad-based weighted-average anti-dilution

Medium (4/8)

P064 · New quantitative practice

Preferred stock’s existing conversion price is $4.00. For the contractual broad-based weighted-average adjustment, A is the 10.0 million common-equivalent shares outstanding before the new issue, B is the number of shares the new consideration would buy at the old conversion price, and C is the number actually issued. A down round raises $6.0 million at $2.00 per share. Apply the standard adjustment CPnew = CPold × (A+B)/(A+C). What is the adjusted conversion price, rounded to two decimals?

  1. $3.17
  2. $3.54
  3. $3.08
  4. $4.52
  5. $2.00

Correct answer: B

B = 6/4 = 1.50 million; C = 6/2 = 3.00 million. New conversion price = 4×(10+1.50)/(10+3.00) = $3.54. A broad-based weighted-average adjustment is less severe than a full ratchet in this example.

A. Why this choice falls short

This double-counts B in the denominator.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits B, the old-price equivalent of new consideration.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the numerator and denominator.

E. Why this choice falls short

This applies full-ratchet protection instead of weighted-average protection.

Related Week 6 deck

Pro-rata investment when the outside check is fixed

Medium (4/8)

P065 · New quantitative practice

An existing investor owns 20% of a startup’s fully diluted shares before a round. Outside investors commit $4.8 million at a fixed $16 million pre-money valuation. The existing investor can invest an additional amount at the same price to maintain its 20% ownership after the entire round. Its check increases total round proceeds rather than replacing outside money. No other capitalization changes occur. What must it invest, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $1.20 million
  2. $0.96 million
  3. $4.16 million
  4. $3.84 million
  5. $6.00 million

Correct answer: A

Let x be the insider check. Maintaining its stake requires x = 0.2×(4.8+x). Thus x = 0.2×4.8/(1−0.2) = $1.20 million. The insider funds its percentage of the entire enlarged round.

B. Why this choice falls short

This assumes the outside commitment is the total round rather than adding the insider’s check.

C. Why this choice falls short

This applies the ownership percentage to company value rather than solving for the incremental investment.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses the other holders’ ownership percentage.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is total round proceeds, not the existing investor’s check.

Related Week 6 deck

Fully diluted ownership after a priced round

Medium (4/8)

P066 · New quantitative practice

Before financing, a company has 7.0 million founder shares, 1.5 million issued employee shares, and 1.5 million unissued shares reserved for options. The round uses a $20 million pre-money valuation and includes the entire existing option reserve in the fully diluted pre-money share count. An investor puts in $5 million. There is no pool top-up or other security. What is founders’ post-round fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 45.00%
  2. 63.64%
  3. 70.00%
  4. 56.00%
  5. 80.00%

Correct answer: D

Pre-money fully diluted shares = 10.00 million. Price = 20/10.0 = $2.0000. New shares = 5/2.0000 = 2.5000 million. Founder ownership = 7/(10.0+2.5000) = 56.00%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts an investment/pre-money ratio instead of issuing new shares and recomputing the denominator.

B. Why this choice falls short

This omits the unissued option reserve from post-round fully diluted shares.

C. Why this choice falls short

This gives the pre-round founder percentage.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is the percentage held by all pre-round fully diluted holders, not founders alone.

Related Week 6 deck

Founder ownership across two financings

Easy (2/8)

P067 · New quantitative practice

Founders initially own 68% of fully diluted equity. A Series A investor receives 18% of the company immediately after its financing. Later, Series B investors receive 22% of the company immediately after their financing. Founders do not invest further or sell existing shares. There are no option-pool changes, convertibles, or other capitalization changes. What percentage do founders own after Series B, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 40.80%
  2. 55.76%
  3. 28.00%
  4. 53.04%
  5. 43.49%

Correct answer: E

Founders retain (1−0.18) of their prior stake after Series A and then (1−0.22) after Series B. Final founder stake = 0.68×0.8200000000000001×0.78 = 43.49%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This adds dilution rates instead of compounding the two rounds.

B. Why this choice falls short

This stops after Series A and ignores Series B.

C. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts percentage points from founder ownership instead of applying each round to the remaining stake.

D. Why this choice falls short

This applies only Series B dilution.

Related Week 6 deck

Pre-money option-pool top-up and founder dilution

Hard (7/8)

P068 · New quantitative practice

Current fully diluted shares total 10.0 million, including 7.0 million founder shares and 0.8 million unallocated option-pool shares. A new investor invests $8 million at a $24 million pre-money valuation. Before pricing, the unallocated pool is increased so that it equals 16% of post-financing fully diluted shares. All top-up shares are included in the pre-money denominator used to set the new share price. No other changes occur. What is founders’ final fully diluted ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 59.86%
  2. 52.50%
  3. 44.89%
  4. 48.61%
  5. 41.30%

Correct answer: C

Let x be new pool shares in millions. Post-financing shares = (10+x)×(1+8/24). Solve 0.8+x = 0.16×(10+x)×1.333333, giving x=1.694915. Founder ownership = 7/[(10+1.694915)×1.333333] = 44.89%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This includes the top-up but omits new investor shares.

B. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the pre-money option-pool top-up.

D. Why this choice falls short

This sizes the reserve as a percentage of old pre-money shares instead of final post-financing shares.

E. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts the entire target pool again even though an existing pool is already included.

Related Week 6 deck

Post-money SAFEs followed by new equity

Medium (4/8)

P069 · New quantitative practice

Founders own all equity before two post-money SAFEs: $1.00 million at a $8.0 million post-money cap and $0.90 million at a $12.0 million post-money cap. For this simplified cap-binding model, each SAFE buys its investment divided by its own cap immediately before the priced round; the SAFEs do not dilute one another. The priced round then sells 25% of post-round equity to new investors. There is no option pool or other dilution. What is final founder ownership, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 60.00%
  2. 75.00%
  3. 60.70%
  4. 55.00%
  5. 80.00%

Correct answer: A

SAFE ownership before the priced round is 12.5000%+7.5000%. Founder ownership before the round is 80.0000%. Multiply by 75% retained after the round: 60.00%. The capitalization convention is stipulated to avoid document-specific SAFE ambiguities.

B. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the SAFE ownership sold before the round.

C. Why this choice falls short

This sequentially dilutes the SAFEs, contrary to the stated post-money convention.

D. Why this choice falls short

This subtracts priced-round dilution as percentage points instead of multiplying the remaining founder stake.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is founder ownership before the priced-round dilution.

Related Week 6 deck

Convertible note with interest, cap, and discount

Hard (6/8)

P070 · New quantitative practice

A note has principal of $1.1 million and simple annual interest of 6% for 2 years. Both principal and accrued interest convert. New investors pay $4.00 per share. The note converts at the lower of a 25% discount to that price or a $13 million valuation cap divided by 5 million pre-conversion fully diluted shares. The cap denominator excludes the note itself and new-round shares. How many shares does the note receive, rounded to the nearest share?

  1. 423,077 shares
  2. 473,846 shares
  3. 410,667 shares
  4. 308,000 shares
  5. 631,795 shares

Correct answer: B

Conversion balance = 1.1×(1+0.06×2) = 1.2320 million. Discount price = $3.00; cap price = $2.60. Use $2.60. Shares = 1.2320 million / 2.60 = 473,846.

A. Why this choice falls short

This excludes accrued interest from the conversion amount.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses the discount price even though the cap produces a lower conversion price.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses the new investors’ price without either note protection.

E. Why this choice falls short

This applies the discount to the cap price, stacking protections that are alternatives.

Related Week 6 deck

Nonparticipating preferred at exit

Medium (4/8)

P071 · New quantitative practice

An investor paid $5 million for 30% ownership on an as-converted basis. Its preferred shares carry a 1.2× nonparticipating liquidation preference. At exit, $24 million is available to distribute after all debt and transaction costs. The investor may either take its preference or convert to common, but cannot do both. There are no other preferred claims. How much does the investor receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $16.80 million
  2. $13.20 million
  3. $7.20 million
  4. $6.00 million
  5. $11.40 million

Correct answer: C

Preference payout = 5×1.2 = 6.00. Conversion payout = 0.3×24 = 7.20. Nonparticipating preferred elects the larger: $7.20 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is the payout to other holders, not the preferred investor.

B. Why this choice falls short

This pays both the full preference and full as-converted share.

D. Why this choice falls short

This chooses the less valuable option rather than the greater available payout.

E. Why this choice falls short

This treats nonparticipating preferred as participating preferred.

Related Week 6 deck

Uncapped participating preferred proceeds

Medium (4/8)

P072 · New quantitative practice

A preferred investor paid $4 million and owns 25% on an as-converted basis. The shares have a 1× participating liquidation preference with no participation cap. The exit produces $30 million for shareholders after debt and costs. The investor receives its preference first and then participates in the remaining proceeds at its as-converted percentage. No other preferred claims exist. What is the investor’s distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $7.50 million
  2. $19.50 million
  3. $4.00 million
  4. $11.50 million
  5. $10.50 million

Correct answer: E

First pay 4 million. Remaining proceeds = 30−4 = 26. Investor participation = 0.25×26. Total = 4+0.25×26 = $10.50 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This assumes straight conversion and omits participation after the preference.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is the distribution to the other shareholders.

C. Why this choice falls short

This pays only the preference and ignores participation.

D. Why this choice falls short

This calculates participation on all exit proceeds, double-counting the preference amount.

Related Week 6 deck

Participation cap versus voluntary conversion

Hard (6/8)

P073 · New quantitative practice

An investor paid $5 million for 30% as-converted ownership. It has a 1× participating preference capped at 2× its original investment in total distributions while remaining preferred. It may instead convert to common and take its uncapped as-converted percentage. Exit proceeds available to shareholders are $45 million; there are no other preferred claims. What is the investor’s optimal payout, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $17.00 million
  2. $18.50 million
  3. $13.50 million
  4. $10.00 million
  5. $31.50 million

Correct answer: C

Uncapped participation would pay 5+0.3×(45−5) = 17.00, but preferred proceeds are capped at 10.00. Conversion pays 0.3×45 = 13.50. Choose $13.50 million. The preferred cap does not cap the separate common-conversion alternative.

A. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the participation cap while retaining preferred status.

B. Why this choice falls short

This gives the investor both its preference and a full common share of total exit proceeds.

D. Why this choice falls short

This applies the preferred cap but ignores the higher available conversion payout.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is the payout to the remaining shareholders.

Related Week 6 deck

Equal-ranking preference claims in a shortfall

Easy (2/8)

P074 · New quantitative practice

Series A and Series B have equal-ranking nonparticipating liquidation-preference claims of $7.5 million and $5.0 million. Exit cash available to shareholders is only $8.0 million. The documents allocate a preference shortfall pro rata to the dollar size of the claims, and neither series converts. Common shareholders receive nothing until both claims are paid. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $4.80 million
  2. $7.50 million
  3. $3.20 million
  4. $3.00 million
  5. $4.00 million

Correct answer: A

Series A’s claim fraction = 7.5/(7.5+5). Multiply by available cash of 8: Series A receives $4.80 million. Equal-ranking claims share the shortfall proportionately.

B. Why this choice falls short

This pays Series A in full despite the equal-ranking shortfall allocation.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is Series B’s pro-rata payout.

D. Why this choice falls short

This incorrectly pays Series B first as a senior claim.

E. Why this choice falls short

Equal ranking does not mean equal dollars when claim sizes differ.

Related Week 6 deck

Senior and junior liquidation preferences

Easy (2/8)

P075 · New quantitative practice

An exit provides $9.0 million after debt and transaction costs. Series B has a senior liquidation claim of $6.0 million. Series A has a junior liquidation claim of $5.0 million. Both are nonparticipating, and neither converts. The documents pay Series B in full before Series A; common is paid last. What does Series A receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $3.00 million
  2. $5.00 million
  3. $4.09 million
  4. $6.00 million
  5. $0.00 million

Correct answer: A

Pay senior Series B 6.00 first. Remaining proceeds = 9.00−6.00 = 3.00. Series A receives the lesser of that remainder and its 5.00 claim: $3.00 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This pays Series A in full although insufficient cash remains after the senior claim.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses a pro-rata split even though the claims have different seniority.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the senior Series B claim, not Series A’s payout.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is the residual for common holders after preferences.

Related Week 6 deck

Full-ratchet protection and founder ownership

Hard (6/8)

P076 · New quantitative practice

Founders hold 7.0 million common shares. An earlier investor holds 2.5 million preferred shares, originally convertible one-for-one at a $4.80 conversion price. A down round raises $6.0 million at $2.40 per share. Full-ratchet protection resets the earlier conversion price to the down-round price; its new conversion ratio equals old conversion price divided by new conversion price. No pool or other securities exist. What is founders’ fully diluted ownership after the round, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 65.12%
  2. 58.33%
  3. 41.18%
  4. 34.48%
  5. 48.28%

Correct answer: E

Earlier common-equivalent shares = 2.5×4.8/2.4 = 5.00 million. New-round shares = 6/2.4 = 2.50 million. Founder stake = 7/(7+5.00+2.50) = 48.28%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This prices the new investment at the old price and ignores anti-dilution protection.

B. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the ratchet increase in common-equivalent shares.

C. Why this choice falls short

This counts both the original and adjusted common-equivalent shares instead of replacing the original conversion amount.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the earlier investor’s ownership, not founders’ ownership.

Related Week 6 deck

Broad-based weighted-average anti-dilution

Medium (4/8)

P077 · New quantitative practice

Preferred stock’s existing conversion price is $5.00. For the contractual broad-based weighted-average adjustment, A is the 12.0 million common-equivalent shares outstanding before the new issue, B is the number of shares the new consideration would buy at the old conversion price, and C is the number actually issued. A down round raises $8.0 million at $2.50 per share. Apply the standard adjustment CPnew = CPold × (A+B)/(A+C). What is the adjusted conversion price, rounded to two decimals?

  1. $3.95
  2. $5.59
  3. $4.47
  4. $2.50
  5. $4.05

Correct answer: C

B = 8/5 = 1.60 million; C = 8/2.5 = 3.20 million. New conversion price = 5×(12+1.60)/(12+3.20) = $4.47. A broad-based weighted-average adjustment is less severe than a full ratchet in this example.

A. Why this choice falls short

This omits B, the old-price equivalent of new consideration.

B. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the numerator and denominator.

D. Why this choice falls short

This applies full-ratchet protection instead of weighted-average protection.

E. Why this choice falls short

This double-counts B in the denominator.

Related Week 6 deck

Pro-rata investment when the outside check is fixed

Medium (4/8)

P078 · New quantitative practice

An existing investor owns 25% of a startup’s fully diluted shares before a round. Outside investors commit $6.0 million at a fixed $20 million pre-money valuation. The existing investor can invest an additional amount at the same price to maintain its 25% ownership after the entire round. Its check increases total round proceeds rather than replacing outside money. No other capitalization changes occur. What must it invest, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $1.50 million
  2. $6.50 million
  3. $8.00 million
  4. $4.50 million
  5. $2.00 million

Correct answer: E

Let x be the insider check. Maintaining its stake requires x = 0.25×(6+x). Thus x = 0.25×6/(1−0.25) = $2.00 million. The insider funds its percentage of the entire enlarged round.

A. Why this choice falls short

This assumes the outside commitment is the total round rather than adding the insider’s check.

B. Why this choice falls short

This applies the ownership percentage to company value rather than solving for the incremental investment.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is total round proceeds, not the existing investor’s check.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses the other holders’ ownership percentage.

Related Week 6 deck

Week 7: VC Industry and Fund Economics

classify the investment

Easy (1/8)

W7-S006 · Source slide 6

An investor buys a 15% stake in a young software company to fund growth. No acquisition debt is used. Which classification is best supported?

  1. A buyout, because the company is privately held.
  2. Venture capital, reflecting its stage and minority ownership.
  3. A public-equity investment, because ownership is expressed as a percentage.
  4. A buyout, because the investor can negotiate governance rights.
  5. Insufficient information unless the investor’s management fee is known.

Correct answer: B

The described ownership, company stage, and financing fit the common VC model.

A. Why this choice falls short

Confuses all private equity with buyouts.

C. Why this choice falls short

Confuses private shares with listed shares.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats governance rights as control.

E. Why this choice falls short

Makes fee terms determine investment strategy.

Related Week 7 deck

follow the money through the entities

Easy (0/8)

W7-S010 · Source slide 10

Assumptions: Use the taught structure; carry goes directly to the GP, with no separate carry vehicle.

A fund buys startup shares, pays a management fee, and later allocates carry. Which mapping correctly identifies the investment owner, fee recipient, and carry recipient?

  1. Owner: fund; fee: management company; carry: GP.
  2. Owner: GP; fee: management company; carry: fund.
  3. Owner: management company; fee: GP; carry: fund.
  4. Owner: fund; fee: GP; carry: management company.
  5. Owner: management company; fee: fund; carry: GP.

Correct answer: A

The fund owns the investments. The management company earns the operating fee. In this structure, the GP receives carry. Control of investment decisions does not make the GP the investment owner.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses control with ownership and assigns carry to the fund.

C. Why this choice falls short

Assigns all three roles incorrectly.

D. Why this choice falls short

Swaps fees and carry.

E. Why this choice falls short

Confuses the operating business with the fund vehicle.

Related Week 7 deck

annual management fee

Easy (2/8)

W7-S014 · Source slide 14

A $500M fund charges a 2% annual management fee on committed capital. What is the annual fee?

  1. $5 million
  2. $10 million
  3. $1 million
  4. $20 million
  5. $100 million

Correct answer: B

$500 million × 2% = $10 million for the year in which that rate and base apply.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies 1% rather than the stated 2% annual management-fee rate.

C. Why this choice falls short

This applies 0.2%, one-tenth of the stated 2% annual fee rate.

D. Why this choice falls short

This applies 4%, twice the stated 2% annual management-fee rate.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses 20%. Carry and management fees use different rates and bases.

Related Week 7 deck

capital available to invest

Medium (3/8)

W7-S016 · Source slide 16

Assumptions: No other calls, distributions, recycling, or commitment changes.

LPs commit $120 million and fund a $45 million call. The fund invests $42 million and pays $3 million of fees and expenses. What are paid-in capital and uncalled commitments?

  1. Paid-in: $42 million; uncalled: $75 million.
  2. Paid-in: $45 million; uncalled: $78 million.
  3. Paid-in: $120 million; uncalled: $0 million.
  4. Paid-in: $45 million; uncalled: $75 million.
  5. Paid-in: $42 million; uncalled: $78 million.

Correct answer: D

LPs contributed the full $45 million, including the $3 million spent on fees. Uncalled commitments are $120 million − $45 million = $75 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

Excludes funded fees from paid-in capital.

B. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts investment spending instead of the call.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats the commitment as fully funded.

E. Why this choice falls short

Makes both fee-related errors.

Related Week 7 deck

manager incentives

Medium (3/8)

W7-S019 · Source slide 19

Assumptions: Both fee schedules are in effect for a full year, without offsets or waivers.

A manager raises a $200 million successor fund after a $100 million fund. Each charges 2% annually on commitments. Comparing their initial annual fee streams, which conclusion is supported before investment results are known?

  1. The successor’s annual fee is $2m higher; carry and partner pay remain uncertain.
  2. The successor’s fee is $2m higher; partner compensation increases by the same amount.
  3. The successor’s fee stays unchanged until its investments produce a realized profit.
  4. The successor’s fee is $4m higher, reflecting the fee on the larger fund.
  5. The successor’s fee stays unchanged because the additional commitments are not yet invested.

Correct answer: A

The fee streams are $4 million and $2 million annually, a $2 million difference. Revenue is before operating costs; partner pay depends on compensation arrangements. Carry still depends on eligible profits.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats revenue as take-home pay.

C. Why this choice falls short

Applies a carry condition to fees.

D. Why this choice falls short

Confuses the new fee level with its increase.

E. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes invested capital for the stated commitment base.

Related Week 7 deck

identify the correct waterfall

Easy (1/8)

W7-S022 · Source slide 22

A startup is sold. Its preferred shareholders first receive proceeds under the company’s charter. The VC fund then allocates its receipts to LPs and the GP. Which statement is correct?

  1. The company’s liquidation preference determines the fund’s carried-interest percentage.
  2. The LP preferred return ranks ahead of the startup’s preferred shares at the company sale.
  3. Company security terms allocate the exit proceeds; fund terms allocate the fund’s distributions.
  4. The GP’s carry is deducted from all shareholders’ proceeds before company preferences apply.
  5. An 80/20 fund split means founders keep 80% of the company’s sale proceeds.

Correct answer: C

The company’s charter governs shareholder rights. The fund’s LPA governs the separate distribution to capital providers and the GP.

A. Why this choice falls short

Move fund economics into the company waterfall.

B. Why this choice falls short

Inserts an LP fund priority into the company’s shareholder ranking.

D. Why this choice falls short

Move fund economics into the company waterfall.

E. Why this choice falls short

Confuses fund profit sharing with founder ownership.

Related Week 7 deck

carry on profit

Easy (2/8)

W7-S024 · Source slide 24

Assumptions: The $100M is entirely LP paid-in capital; $300M is distributable proceeds. No fees, taxes, GP capital, or interim distributions.

A $100M fund returns $300M with no preferred return. Using a 20% carry, how much does the GP receive?

  1. $60M, taking 20% of the $300M returned
  2. $20M, taking 10% of the fund's profit
  3. $40M, 20% of the $200M profit
  4. $0, because VC charges no carry
  5. $100M, the entire profit above capital

Correct answer: C

With $100 million of contributed capital and $300 million of final proceeds, profit is $200 million. Carry is 20% × $200 million = $40 million; LPs receive $260 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

Charges carry on proceeds.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses the wrong carry rate.

D. Why this choice falls short

Contradicts the stated terms.

E. Why this choice falls short

Misstates both the amount of profit and the GP’s share.

Related Week 7 deck

what does the preferred return promise?

Medium (4/8)

W7-S028 · Source slide 28

Assumptions: All investments realized; distribute all available cash; no fees, taxes, GP capital, or guarantees.

LPs contribute $100 million at the start of a fund. Exactly one year later, only $106 million is available. Capital is returned first, then an 8% preferred return, then carry. What happens?

  1. LPs: $108 million; GP funds the missing $2 million of preferred return.
  2. LPs: $104.8 million; GP: $1.2 million, sharing the profit at 80/20.
  3. LPs: $100 million; GP: $6 million, allocating the profit to catch-up.
  4. LPs: $100 million; GP: $0; retain $6 million until the preference can be paid fully.
  5. LPs: $106 million; GP: $0; the preferred return is partly paid.

Correct answer: E

Available cash pays $100 million of capital and $6 million of the $8 million priority return. The carry tiers have not been reached.

A. Why this choice falls short

Promises unavailable cash.

B. Why this choice falls short

Skips the preferred-return priority.

C. Why this choice falls short

Starts catch-up too early.

D. Why this choice falls short

Mistakes a distribution priority for a prohibition on partial distributions.

Related Week 7 deck

apply all four tiers

Hard (7/8)

W7-S032 · Source slide 32

Assumptions: Return LP capital first; no fees, taxes, GP capital, or interim distributions.

LPs contribute $120m at time zero. At year one, $150m is distributable: capital first, 10% preference, 100% GP catch-up, then 80% LP / 20% GP. Which catch-up amount and final totals are correct?

  1. Catch-up $0m; LP total $146.4m; GP total $3.6m.
  2. Catch-up $3m; LP total $144m; GP total $6m.
  3. Catch-up $2.4m; LP total $144m; GP total $6m.
  4. Catch-up $3m; LP total $141m; GP total $9m.
  5. Catch-up $3m; LP total $147m; GP total $3m.

Correct answer: B

Preference is $12m. Catch-up is $3m because $3m / ($12m + $3m) = 20%. After $120m capital, $12m preference, and $3m catch-up, the remaining $15m splits $12m / $3m. Final totals: LPs $144m; GP $6m.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits catch-up.

C. Why this choice falls short

Pairs correct final totals with an incorrect catch-up: 20% of the preference alone.

D. Why this choice falls short

Adds catch-up on top of final 20% carry.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits residual carry.

Related Week 7 deck

Preferred return and full catch-up

Hard (7/8)

W7-S035 · Source slide 35

A fund has the following cash timeline:

DateEvent
Start of Year 1, time 0LPs contribute $60 million
Start of Year 2, time 1LPs contribute another $40 million
End of Year 3, time 3Fund has $136 million available for its final distribution, after fees and expenses but before GP carry

There are no interim distributions or GP capital contributions. The whole-fund waterfall applies in this order:

Return all $100 million of LP capital.

Pay LPs an 8% annually compounded preferred return on each contribution, measured from its contribution date to time 3.

Pay 100% to the GP until GP carry equals 20% of cumulative distributed profit.

Split remaining profit 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP.

For the catch-up test, distributed profit includes LP preferred return and GP catch-up, but excludes returned capital.

What are the LP preferred return in tier 2 and the amount paid specifically in the GP catch-up tier? Round to $0.001 million.

  1. LP preferred return: $25.971 million; GP catch-up tier: $6.493 million.
  2. LP preferred return: $16.640 million; GP catch-up tier: $4.160 million.
  3. LP preferred return: $20.800 million; GP catch-up tier: $5.200 million.
  4. LP preferred return: $22.239 million; GP catch-up tier: $5.560 million.
  5. LP preferred return: $22.239 million; GP catch-up tier: $4.448 million.

Correct answer: D

The first contribution earns three years of preferred return; the second earns two.

Preferred return = $60 million × (1.08³ − 1) + $40 million × (1.08² − 1) = $22.238720 million.

If C is the 100% GP catch-up, C / (preferred return + C) = 20%. Thus C = preferred return × 20%/80% = $5.559680 million. There is enough cash to complete this tier.

TierLP distribution, $mGP distribution, $mCash remaining, $m
Return capital100.000000036.000000
Preferred return22.238720013.761280
GP catch-up05.5596808.201600
Residual split6.5612801.6403200
Total128.8000007.2000000

The question asks for the catch-up tier, not total GP carry. Total GP carry is $7.2 million because this fully completed waterfall ultimately gives the GP 20% of the $36 million total profit.

A. Why this choice falls short

Accrues three years of preferred return on the second contribution even though it is invested for only two years.

B. Why this choice falls short

Accrues only two years of preferred return on the first contribution, which is invested for three years.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses simple interest instead of the stated annual compounding.

E. Why this choice falls short

Sets catch-up at 20% of the preferred return alone, excluding the catch-up itself from total distributed profit.

Related Week 7 deck

incomplete catch-up

Hard (6/8)

W7-S038 · Source slide 38

Assumptions: No fees, taxes, GP capital, guarantees, or interim distributions.

LPs contribute $80m at time zero. At year one, final proceeds are $89.2m. Capital comes first, then a 10% preference, then 100% GP catch-up toward 20% carry. How is the cash allocated?

  1. LPs $87.36m; GP $1.84m.
  2. LPs $89.2m; GP $0m.
  3. LPs $87.2m; GP $2m.
  4. LPs $88m; GP $1.2m.
  5. LPs $88.96m; GP $0.24m.

Correct answer: D

Capital plus preference uses $80m + $8m = $88m. Only $1.2m remains for the GP. The full catch-up target is $2m, but available cash is insufficient to complete it.

A. Why this choice falls short

Applies 20% to all profit too early.

B. Why this choice falls short

Prohibits partial catch-up.

C. Why this choice falls short

Funds the catch-up target by underpaying the LP preference.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses the residual 80/20 split before catch-up completes.

Related Week 7 deck

Partial GP catch-up

Hard (7/8)

W7-S041 · Source slide 41

LPs contribute $100 million at inception. At the end of Year 2, the fund has $120 million available for its final distribution, after fees and expenses but before GP carry. There are no interim distributions or GP capital contributions.

Apply the waterfall in this order:

TierAllocation and stopping rule
1. Return capitalPay LPs their $100 million contribution.
2. Preferred returnPay LPs the preferred return accrued at 8% annually, compounded for two years on their original $100 million contribution.
3. Catch-upAllocate each dollar 80% to the GP and 20% to LPs until GP carry equals 20% of cumulative distributed profit.
4. ResidualSplit later profit 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP.

For the catch-up test, distributed profit includes the preferred return and all profit paid during catch-up, but excludes returned capital. Stop when cash is exhausted; an unfinished tier does not create an additional payment obligation.

What are final GP carry and total LP distributions, rounded to $0.001 million?

  1. GP carry: $4.000 million; total LP distributions: $116.000 million.
  2. GP carry: $3.360 million; total LP distributions: $116.640 million.
  3. GP carry: $2.688 million; total LP distributions: $117.312 million.
  4. GP carry: $0.672 million; total LP distributions: $119.328 million.
  5. GP carry: $3.200 million; total LP distributions: $116.800 million.

Correct answer: C

Preferred return = $100 million × (1.08² − 1) = $16.640 million. After returning capital and paying the preference, cash remaining is $3.360 million.

Let X be the total cash passing through a completed catch-up tier. The target is 0.8X / (16.64 + X) = 20%, giving X = $5.546667 million. Only $3.36 million is available, so the tier remains incomplete.

GP carry = 80% × $3.36 million = $2.688 million. LPs receive $100 million + $16.64 million + 20% × $3.36 million = $117.312 million. The distributions sum to $120 million. There is no residual-tier allocation.

A. Why this choice falls short

Applies 20% carry to all profit even though the catch-up cannot be completed.

B. Why this choice falls short

Applies a 100% GP catch-up instead of the stated 80% GP / 20% LP catch-up.

D. Why this choice falls short

Skips catch-up and immediately uses the residual 20% GP allocation.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses two years of simple preferred return, leaving too much cash for catch-up.

Related Week 7 deck

same final split, different protection

Hard (6/8)

W7-S044 · Source slide 44

Assumptions: No fees, taxes, GP capital, or other differences.

Two funds receive $100m at time zero and distribute only at year one. Both return capital first and charge 20% carry. One has no preference; the other has an 8% preference and 100% GP catch-up. Compare GP carry at final proceeds of $120m and $105m.

  1. $120m: same carry; $105m: lower carry with the preference.
  2. $120m: lower carry with the preference; $105m: same carry.
  3. $120m: same carry; $105m: same carry.
  4. $120m: higher carry with the preference; $105m: lower carry with the preference.
  5. $120m: lower carry with the preference; $105m: higher carry with the preference.

Correct answer: A

At $120m, both pay $4m carry: the preferred-return fund completes catch-up. At $105m, the no-preference fund pays $1m carry; the preferred-return fund pays $0 because its $8m preference is not fully paid.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats catch-up as absent and misses the low-outcome protection.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores incomplete tiers.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats catch-up as extra carry.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the protection at the low outcome.

Related Week 7 deck

calculate the carry true-up

Medium (4/8)

W7-S048 · Source slide 48

Assumptions: No fees, preferred return, taxes, or GP capital; full fund-level clawback with no cap or collectability issue.

LPs invest $50 million in each of two deals. A exits for $100 million and the GP receives $10 million carry. B later exits for $20 million. Final carry is 20% of total fund profit. How much carry must the GP return?

  1. $0 million.
  2. $4 million.
  3. $6 million.
  4. $10 million.
  5. $8 million.

Correct answer: C

Final proceeds are $120 million on $100 million capital: $20 million profit. Final carry is $4 million. The GP has already received $10 million, so the required repayment is $6 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the clawback.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses entitlement with repayment.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the fund’s remaining profit.

E. Why this choice falls short

Applies the 80% LP share to earlier carry instead of reconciling actual overpayment.

Related Week 7 deck

Escrow and GP clawback

Hard (7/8)

W7-S051 · Source slide 51

LPs fund two investments: $30 million in Company A and $30 million in Company B. There are no fees, expenses, preferred returns, or GP capital contributions.

Company A exits first for $78 million. Its deal-by-deal waterfall returns that investment's $30 million cost to LPs, then allocates profit 80% to LPs and 20% to GP carry. Twenty percent of the allocated GP carry is retained in escrow; the rest is paid to the GP.

Company B later exits for $18 million. The fund then liquidates. An enforceable final clawback limits total GP carry to 20% of the combined profit after returning all $60 million of LP capital. Any escrowed carry is used first to satisfy a clawback. There are no tax limitations or other adjustments.

What is the total clawback obligation, including the portion covered by escrow, and how much additional cash must the GP repay after applying that escrow?

  1. Total clawback: $2.40 million; additional GP cash repayment: $2.40 million.
  2. Total clawback: $2.40 million; additional GP cash repayment: $0.48 million.
  3. Total clawback: $1.92 million; additional GP cash repayment: $0.00 million.
  4. Total clawback: $9.60 million; additional GP cash repayment: $7.68 million.
  5. Total clawback: $8.40 million; additional GP cash repayment: $6.48 million.

Correct answer: B

Company A profit = $78 million − $30 million = $48 million. Allocated carry = $9.60 million; escrow = $1.92 million; cash initially paid to the GP = $7.68 million.

Combined profit = $78 million + $18 million − $60 million = $36 million. Final permissible carry = $7.20 million.

Total excess carry = $9.6 million − $7.2 million = $2.4 million. Apply the $1.92 million escrow, leaving $0.48 million of additional GP cash repayment.

After the true-up, LPs receive $88.8 million and the GP retains $7.2 million, totaling the $96 million of proceeds. Escrow reduces collection risk; it does not change the amount of carry earned under the final waterfall.

A. Why this choice falls short

Calculates the carry overpayment correctly but ignores the escrow already available to satisfy it.

C. Why this choice falls short

Mistakes the escrow balance for the total clawback obligation.

D. Why this choice falls short

Claws back all early carry even though the fund still earns a positive aggregate profit.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats Company B’s $18 million proceeds as the only fund proceeds when measuring the capital shortfall; it ignores Company A’s realized gain.

Related Week 7 deck

portfolio value versus cash available

Easy (1/8)

W7-S055 · Source slide 55

A fund reports higher portfolio valuations, but LPs have received no distributions and still face capital calls. Which conclusion is best supported?

  1. The new calls indicate that the fund’s investments performed poorly despite the reported valuation gains.
  2. The valuation gains reduce future funding needs by the same amount, so LPs can lower cash reserves.
  3. The calls establish that the fund has exhausted its reserves for supporting existing portfolio companies.
  4. After the investment period ends, further capital calls must be for fees rather than follow-on investments.
  5. Reported value can rise while LP cash flow is negative and calls continue.

Correct answer: E

A valuation mark is not a cash distribution. LPs must manage the liquidity needed for calls even when estimated portfolio value rises.

A. Why this choice falls short

Infers performance from cash demands.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats an unrealized gain as funding capacity.

C. Why this choice falls short

Confuses a call with exhaustion of follow-on reserves.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assumes the investment period prohibits later follow-ons.

Related Week 7 deck

reserves versus new investments

Medium (3/8)

W7-S057 · Source slide 57

Assumptions: No recycling, new commitments, or other changes to available capacity.

A fund has $20m of remaining investable capacity after fees and expenses. Its plan reserves $12m for follow-ons. It considers a new $10m investment. Under the unchanged reserve plan, which conclusion is correct?

  1. $20m is available for new checks; reserves matter only when a follow-on closes.
  2. $10m fits if funded through a capital call instead of the fund’s existing cash.
  3. $8m is available now; a portfolio valuation markup can fund the remaining $2m.
  4. $8m is available for new checks; funding $10m requires revisiting the reserve plan.
  5. $12m is available for new checks because that amount was set aside for future investing.

Correct answer: D

The planned new-investment budget is $20m − $12m = $8m. A $10m check requires an authorized change to the reserve plan or another source of capacity. A capital call converts commitments into cash; it does not expand this budget.

A. Why this choice falls short

Spends capacity already reserved.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses cash timing with budget capacity.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats a valuation gain as cash.

E. Why this choice falls short

Assigns follow-on reserves to new investments.

Related Week 7 deck

total value multiple

Easy (2/8)

W7-S060 · Source slide 60

Assumptions: Both quoted multiples use the same paid-in capital and LP net basis; the portfolio value is residual value attributable to LPs.

A fund has returned 1.2x of paid-in capital in cash and holds portfolio value worth another 1.1x. What is its TVPI?

  1. 1.2x, counting only the cash returned
  2. 1.1x, counting only the residual value
  3. 0.1x, the difference between the two
  4. 2.3x, realized plus unrealized value
  5. 1.32x, the product of the two multiples

Correct answer: D

With a common paid-in denominator and valuation date, TVPI = DPI + RVPI = 1.2x + 1.1x = 2.3x. Only 1.2x has been returned in cash; 1.1x remains an estimate.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits residual value.

B. Why this choice falls short

Omits distributions.

C. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts the components.

E. Why this choice falls short

Multiplies ratios that must be added.

Related Week 7 deck

DPI and TVPI

Hard (6/8)

W7-S063 · Source slide 63

A fund has $80 million of commitments, $50 million of LP paid-in capital, $25 million of cumulative LP distributions, and $60 million of residual NAV attributable to LPs.

An asset included in the $60 million NAV is valued at $20 million. The fund sells it for $16 million and distributes all $16 million to LPs. After removing that asset, the manager reduces the value of the entire remaining portfolio by 25%.

All asset values, sale proceeds, and distributions are LP amounts after fees, expenses, and carry; no further carry adjustment is required. There are no new contributions, other distributions, liabilities, or valuation changes.

What are DPI and TVPI immediately after both events?

  1. DPI: 0.51×; TVPI: 0.89×.
  2. DPI: 0.82×; TVPI: 1.72×.
  3. DPI: 0.90×; TVPI: 1.50×.
  4. DPI: 0.82×; TVPI: 1.62×.
  5. DPI: 0.82×; TVPI: 1.42×.

Correct answer: E

Updated cumulative LP distributions = $25 million + $16 million = $41 million.

Remaining NAV before markdown = $60 million − $20 million = $40 million. After the markdown, NAV = $40 million × 75% = $30 million.

DPI = $41 million / $50 million = 0.82×. RVPI = $30 million / $50 million = 0.60×. TVPI = ($41 million + $30 million) / $50 million = 1.42×.

Before the events, DPI was 0.50× and TVPI was 1.70×. Cash realization can increase DPI while a loss on sale and markdowns reduce total value. A higher DPI alone does not mean total fund performance improved.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses commitments, rather than paid-in capital, as the denominator.

B. Why this choice falls short

Marks down the old $60 million NAV without first removing the sold asset.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats the asset’s former $20 million mark as the cash proceeds received and distributed.

D. Why this choice falls short

Removes the realized asset but ignores the subsequent markdown of the remaining portfolio.

Related Week 7 deck

Fees, carry, and LP returns

Hard (7/8)

W7-S066 · Source slide 66

LPs commit and contribute a total of $80 million to a fund. The following costs are paid from that contributed capital:

CostRate or amountApplicable base or period
Management fee, Years 1–32% annually$80 million of commitments
Management fee, Years 4–51.5% annuallyFixed $40 million fee base
Other lifetime fund expenses$2 millionTotal across the fund's life

All capital remaining after these costs is invested. Total cash received from selling all portfolio investments, including recovery of invested capital, equals 2.00× the amount actually invested. No unsold investments or other fund assets remain. The costs above have already been paid and are not deducted again from exit proceeds.

The whole-fund waterfall first returns all $80 million of LP contributions, then allocates remaining profit 80% to LPs and 20% to GP carry. There is no preferred return, catch-up, or GP capital contribution.

What is final net LP DPI, rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 1.64×
  2. 1.62×
  3. 1.56×
  4. 1.60×
  5. 1.82×

Correct answer: A

Management fees = 3 × 2% × $80 million + 2 × 1.5% × $40 million = $6 million. Including $2 million of other expenses, total costs are $8 million.

Invested capital = $80 million − $8 million = $72 million. Gross exit proceeds = 2.00 × $72 million = $144 million.

Distribution stepLPsGP carry
Return all contributed capital$80 million$0
Split the $64 million remaining profit$51.2 million$12.8 million
Total$131.2 million$12.8 million

Net LP DPI = $131.2 million/$80 million = 1.64×. Fees reduce deployable capital; the carry base and DPI denominator nevertheless use total contributed capital under the stated contract. All distributions reconcile to $144 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

Returns only the $72 million invested before charging carry, rather than all $80 million of LP contributions. Carry becomes $14.4 million and LP distributions $129.6 million.

C. Why this choice falls short

Deducts the $8 million of fees and expenses again from $144 million of exit proceeds, then computes carry on the reduced profit.

D. Why this choice falls short

Keeps charging 2% of the $80 million commitment in all five years. That incorrect schedule leaves $70 million invested, $140 million of proceeds, and $128 million for LPs.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides the correct $131.2 million of LP distributions by $72 million invested instead of $80 million paid in.

Related Week 7 deck

what higher IRR means

Easy (1/8)

W7-S069 · Source slide 69

Assumptions: The stated payments are net to LPs; no other cash flows.

Two fully liquidated funds each receive $100m initially and return $150m in one final payment. A pays after two years; B pays after four. Which statement is correct?

  1. A has a higher IRR and a higher TVPI because its capital is returned sooner.
  2. The funds have equal IRRs and equal TVPIs because their final cash proceeds match.
  3. A has a higher IRR; both have the same TVPI and profit dollars.
  4. B has a higher IRR because investors keep their capital invested for longer.
  5. A’s annual IRR is twice B’s because it takes half as long to pay.

Correct answer: C

Both create $50m profit and return 1.5x. Annual IRR is 1.5^(1/2) − 1 ≈ 22.5% for A and 1.5^(1/4) − 1 ≈ 10.7% for B. Compounding means the rates are not in a simple two-to-one ratio.

A. Why this choice falls short

Inserts timing into TVPI.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores timing in IRR.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the timing effect.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats compounded annual returns as linear in years.

Related Week 7 deck

Timing changes the LP return

Medium (5/8)

W7-S072 · Source slide 72

An LP contributes $40m today and $60m exactly one year later. It receives its only net distribution, $146.2m, at the end of Year 3. The fund is then liquidated with no residual value. Fees and carry are already reflected in these LP cash flows.

What is the approximate annual LP IRR?

  1. 13.50% per year.
  2. 20.91% per year.
  3. 46.20% per year.
  4. 17.00% per year.
  5. 15.40% per year.

Correct answer: D

Enter CF₀ = −40, CF₁ = −60, CF₂ = 0, and CF₃ = +146.2, with annual periods and frequency 1. Compute IRR ≈ 17.00%.

Check: −40 − 60 / 1.17 + 146.2 / 1.17³ ≈ 0.

A. Why this choice falls short

Treats all $100m as contributed today.

B. Why this choice falls short

Assigns the whole contribution to Year 1.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reports total profit as an annual return.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides the total return by three. Do not deduct fees or carry a second time.

Related Week 7 deck

compare multiples and cash dollars

Medium (4/8)

W7-S074 · Source slide 74

Assumptions: All distributions are cash; both reports use consistent methods and dates.

Same-vintage Fund A has $20m paid-in capital, DPI 1.5x, and RVPI 0.3x. Fund B has $100m paid-in capital, DPI 0.3x, and RVPI 1.5x. Both have TVPI 1.8x. Which conclusion is supported?

  1. A has returned five times as many cash dollars because its DPI is five times higher.
  2. A returned more cash per dollar contributed; both returned $30m in total.
  3. The funds have equal annualized IRRs because their total value multiples are the same.
  4. B has the stronger realized record because its larger residual value outweighs its lower DPI.
  5. A’s smaller residual value means it has recovered a lower fraction of its contributed capital.

Correct answer: B

A distributed 1.5 × $20m = $30m; B distributed 0.3 × $100m = $30m. A’s higher DPI measures cash returned per contributed dollar. B’s TVPI depends more heavily on unrealized value.

A. Why this choice falls short

Compares ratios as absolute dollars.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores cash-flow timing.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats unrealized value as realized performance.

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses RVPI rather than DPI to judge cash recovery.

Related Week 7 deck

A higher IRR from a delayed capital call

Hard (6/8)

W7-S077 · Source slide 77

A fund buys an investment for $10m at time 0 and sells it for $12.1m at the end of Year 2. With direct funding, LPs pay $10m at time 0. With a credit line, LPs instead pay $10.5m at the end of Year 1 to repay principal and all borrowing costs. In both cases LPs receive $12.1m at Year 2. There are no other flows or residual assets. Which annual LP IRRs and cash multiples are correct?

  1. Direct funding: 10.00% and 1.21×; credit line: 7.35% and 1.15×.
  2. Direct funding: 21.00% and 1.21×; credit line: 15.24% and 1.15×.
  3. Direct funding: 10.00% and 1.21×; credit line: 21.00% and 1.21×.
  4. Direct funding: 10.00% and 1.21×; credit line: 10.00% and 1.21×.
  5. Direct funding: 10.00% and 1.21×; credit line: 15.24% and 1.15×.

Correct answer: E

Direct funding: IRR = (12.1 / 10)^(1/2) − 1 = 10.00%. Cash multiple = 12.1 / 10 = 1.21×.

Credit line: LP money is out for one year. IRR = 12.1 / 10.5 − 1 = 15.24%. Cash multiple = 12.1 / 10.5 = 1.15×.

The investment’s proceeds did not improve. Later LP funding raises IRR here, while $0.5m of costs reduces the multiple.

A. Why this choice falls short

Gives the line-funded LP a two-year holding period.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats the direct investment’s two-year gain as an annual return.

C. Why this choice falls short

Omits borrowing costs.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores both changes in the LP cash flows.

Related Week 7 deck

why fund size matters to a founder

Medium (4/8)

W7-S081 · Source slide 81

Assumptions: Same exit rights; no debt, preferences, selling costs, or further dilution.

Two funds each retain 8% at a possible $400m equity exit. Their committed fund sizes are $40m and $200m. Which conclusion about this potential outcome is supported?

  1. The larger fund receives five times more proceeds because it manages five times as much committed capital.
  2. The two positions have equal fund-level impact because the funds retain the same percentage of the company.
  3. The two investments earn equal deal-level multiples because their eventual exit ownership percentages are the same.
  4. The same $32m represents 80% of the smaller fund and 16% of the larger fund.
  5. The larger fund’s stake cost five times more because its committed fund size is five times greater.

Correct answer: D

Eight percent of $400m is $32m for either fund. Relative to commitments, that is $32m / $40m = 80% and $32m / $200m = 16%. These are gross proceeds relative to fund size, not net LP returns.

A. Why this choice falls short

Changes proceeds without changing ownership.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores relative fund size.

C. Why this choice falls short

Needs entry cost to determine an investment multiple.

E. Why this choice falls short

Infers purchase cost from fund size.

Related Week 7 deck

evaluate a manager’s track record

Hard (6/8)

W7-S084 · Source slide 84

A manager advertises a top-quartile prior fund with TVPI 2.5x and DPI 0.4x. Its successor is three times larger and has a changed investment team. What should an LP emphasize?

  1. Check unrealized valuations, realized proceeds, and how the changed team would deploy the larger fund.
  2. Use the 2.5x TVPI as evidence that investors have already received strong cash returns.
  3. Set the successor’s expected multiple equal to the previous fund’s current 0.4x DPI.
  4. Evaluate today’s commitment using the prior fund’s eventual final quartile once it becomes available.
  5. Use the manager’s past frequency of top-quartile funds as the chance of repeating that result, without adjusting for changes.

Correct answer: A

Most of the reported value is unrealized: RVPI is 2.5x − 0.4x = 2.1x. Investigate those marks and whether the changed team can deploy the larger fund effectively. Persistence is relevant evidence, not a substitute for that analysis.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats TVPI as cash returned.

C. Why this choice falls short

Turns a current cash multiple into a forecast.

D. Why this choice falls short

Uses hindsight.

E. Why this choice falls short

Carries a historical relationship into a changed situation without examination.

Related Week 7 deck

public manager shares versus a fund interest

Easy (0/8)

W7-S087 · Source slide 87

An investor buys shares in a listed private-markets manager instead of becoming an LP in a VC fund. Which exposure has the investor primarily acquired?

  1. A proportional share of the VC fund’s net portfolio value, with liquidity supplied by stock-market trading.
  2. The manager’s gross fee receipts, without the operating costs paid by its management business.
  3. Equity in the manager’s business, including its fee and carry economics.
  4. The VC fund’s investment profits before fees and carry, because those payments stay within the listed group.
  5. A claim on the management business whose returns should match the VC fund’s net investment returns.

Correct answer: C

A listed share is a claim on the public company. Shareholder earnings reflect the manager’s income and costs across its activities, rather than all of a fund’s investment proceeds. Its economics differ from an LP interest in a particular VC fund.

A. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes a fund’s NAV claim for manager equity.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores operating costs.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assigns LP investment profits to manager shareholders.

E. Why this choice falls short

Assumes manager-stock returns match a particular fund’s returns.

Related Week 7 deck

identify the GP’s cash flows

Medium (4/8)

W7-S091 · Source slide 91

Assumptions: No fees, taxes, preferred return, or other cash flows.

LPs contribute $98m and the GP contributes $2m. Final proceeds are $150m. Capital interests share proportionally; the GP earns 20% carry only on LP-attributable profit. What does the GP receive from its own investment and from carry?

  1. Own investment: $2m; carry: $10m.
  2. Own investment: $3m; carry: $10m.
  3. Own investment: $2m; carry: $9.8m.
  4. Own investment: $3m; carry: $9.8m.
  5. Own investment: $3m; carry: $29.4m.

Correct answer: D

The GP’s 2% capital interest receives $3m. LPs’ gross allocation is $147m; their profit is $147m − $98m = $49m, generating $9.8m carry. The GP receives $12.8m total, but only $9.8m is carry.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits the GP’s investment profit and charges carry on its own profit.

B. Why this choice falls short

Charges carry on total fund profit.

C. Why this choice falls short

Omits the GP’s investment profit.

E. Why this choice falls short

Charges carry on LP gross proceeds.

Related Week 7 deck

fund age and carried-interest tax

Medium (4/8)

W7-S094 · Source slide 94

A six-year-old fund sells portfolio shares held for 30 months and allocates gains through an applicable partnership interest. Which approach addresses the general §1061 holding-period issue?

  1. Use the fund’s six-year history as the holding period for this gain allocation.
  2. Use the GP’s holding period in its partnership interest for this portfolio-asset sale.
  3. Apply the ordinary one-year capital-gain threshold without considering the carried-interest rule.
  4. Use the portfolio company’s age, because the shares represent ownership of that business.
  5. Test the asset’s 30-month holding period under §1061 and its exceptions.

Correct answer: E

The general rule requires more than three years for the relevant capital asset. Thirty months does not meet that threshold; applicable exceptions and detailed rules still need evaluation. The fund’s age does not supply the missing holding period.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses fund age.

B. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes the GP interest’s holding period in an asset-sale scenario.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores §1061.

D. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes the company’s age for the fund’s ownership period.

Source notes

IRS, Section 1061 reporting guidance FAQs.

Reference: IRS section 1061 guidance. The general rule uses more than three years, with detailed exceptions.

Related Week 7 deck

timing the preferred return

Medium (4/8)

W7-S097 · Source slide 97

Assumptions: No interim capital repayments or distributions.

LPs contribute $50m at time zero and $30m at year one. Distribution occurs at year three. Preference compounds annually at 10% on contributed, unreturned capital. Which calculation gives the accrued preference?

  1. $80m × (1.10³ − 1).
  2. $80m × (1.10² − 1).
  3. $50m × (1.10² − 1) + $30m × (1.10³ − 1).
  4. $50m × 10% × 3 + $30m × 10% × 2.
  5. $50m × (1.10³ − 1) + $30m × (1.10² − 1).

Correct answer: E

The $50m is outstanding for three years and the $30m for two. Accrued preference is $16.55m + $6.30m = $22.85m. Each contribution uses its own elapsed time.

A. Why this choice falls short

Gives both contributions three years.

B. Why this choice falls short

Gives both two years.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the holding periods.

D. Why this choice falls short

Uses simple interest despite the compounding term.

Related Week 7 deck

catch-up rate versus final carry

Easy (2/8)

W7-S099 · Source slide 99

Assumptions: Capital and preference are paid; the catch-up target is not reached during this payment.

A waterfall allocates 80% to the GP during catch-up toward a 20% final profit share. An additional $1m will be paid entirely within that catch-up tier. How is this $1m allocated?

  1. GP $0.20m; LPs $0.80m.
  2. GP $0.80m; LPs $0.20m.
  3. GP $1.00m; LPs $0.00m.
  4. GP $0.00m; LPs $1.00m.
  5. GP $0.16m; LPs $0.84m.

Correct answer: B

The catch-up tier directs 80% × $1m = $0.8m to the GP and the rest to LPs. Its temporary allocation rate differs from the eventual 20% carry target.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses the residual split too early.

C. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes a 100% catch-up.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats the payment as LP preference.

E. Why this choice falls short

Applies the 20% carry rate again to the 80% allocation.

Related Week 7 deck

escrow and the remaining clawback

Medium (4/8)

W7-S101 · Source slide 101

Assumptions: The LPA requires full clawback and escrow first. No tax adjustment, cap, escrow earnings, or collectability issue.

Earlier carry was $10m: $8m released to the GP and $2m held in escrow. Final carry entitlement is $4m. How should the excess be recovered?

  1. $2m from escrow; $0m from the GP.
  2. $0m from escrow; $6m from the GP.
  3. $2m from escrow; $6m from the GP.
  4. $2m from escrow; $2m from the GP.
  5. $2m from escrow; $4m from the GP.

Correct answer: E

Excess carry is $10m − $4m = $6m. Apply the $2m escrow first, then collect the remaining $4m from the GP. The GP retains $4m of the $8m previously released.

A. Why this choice falls short

Treats escrow as a liability cap.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the escrow-first rule.

C. Why this choice falls short

Counts escrow in addition to the full $6m repayment.

D. Why this choice falls short

Confuses final entitlement with excess carry.

Source notes

ILPA whole-fund model LPA (2020), especially §14.3 and §14.7; illustrative negotiated terms.

Related Week 7 deck

fees, carry, and LP returns

Hard (6/8)

W7-S103 · Source slide 103

Assumptions: All cash is distributed. No preference, unpaid costs, taxes, GP capital, or interim distributions.

LPs contribute $80m: $70m is invested and $10m pays all fees and expenses. Final exit proceeds are $140m. The LPA returns all $80m contributed before 20% carry. Which GP carry, LP distribution, and net DPI are correct?

  1. Carry $14m; LPs $126m; DPI 1.575x.
  2. Carry $12m; LPs $128m; DPI 1.60x.
  3. Carry $28m; LPs $112m; DPI 1.40x.
  4. Carry $12m; LPs $118m; DPI 1.475x.
  5. Carry $12m; LPs $128m; DPI about 1.83x.

Correct answer: B

Carry is 20% × ($140m − $80m) = $12m. LPs receive $128m, so DPI is $128m / $80m = 1.60x. The gross portfolio multiple is $140m / $70m = 2.0x.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses investment cost instead of the stipulated contribution base for carry.

C. Why this choice falls short

Charges carry on proceeds.

D. Why this choice falls short

Deducts already-paid costs twice.

E. Why this choice falls short

Divides by investment cost rather than LP paid-in capital.

Related Week 7 deck

relative industry size

Easy (0/8)

W7-S106 · Source slide 106

Assumptions: For this original question, “private equity” refers to the broader private-equity universe, which includes VC. Public-market capitalization and fund AUM are different measures.

How does the U.S. venture capital industry compare in size to public equity and private equity?

  1. VC is the single largest of the three by total assets under management
  2. VC and private equity are roughly the same size overall
  3. VC is far smaller than both private and public equity
  4. VC is larger than private equity but smaller than public
  5. The three are each capped at $1 trillion by regulation

Correct answer: C

C is the intended broad comparison. VC is a smaller segment of private equity, and public-equity markets are much larger. This wording is a directional recall check, not a matched numerical comparison of AUM and market capitalization.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverse the relative scale.

B. Why this choice falls short

Equates a segment with the broader universe.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reverse the relative scale.

E. Why this choice falls short

Invents a regulatory cap. Geography, date, and measurement still matter for a precise comparison.

Source notes

NVCA 2026 Yearbook, U.S. VC AUM chart, printed p. 12; PitchBook, 2025 Annual US PE Breakdown, AUM, p. 33; SIFMA, 2026 Capital Markets Fact Book findings, U.S. equity-market size.

Related Week 7 deck

venture capital versus buyouts

Easy (0/8)

W7-S108 · Source slide 108

What most fundamentally distinguishes a venture capital investment from a private equity buyout?

  1. VC funds always charge a higher management fee than buyout funds do
  2. PE buyout funds never use any borrowed money in their deals
  3. VC funds take controlling stakes in mature, cash-generating firms
  4. PE and VC funds both target the exact same net IRR range
  5. VC generally takes minority stakes without acquisition leverage; buyouts often acquire control using meaningful debt

Correct answer: E

E describes common investment structures: VC often buys minority equity; buyouts often acquire control with acquisition debt. There are exceptions to both patterns.

A. Why this choice falls short

Makes a universal fee claim.

B. Why this choice falls short

Excludes common acquisition leverage.

C. Why this choice falls short

Describes a buyout pattern as VC.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assumes identical return objectives across different strategies.

Related Week 7 deck

the carry recipient

Easy (0/8)

W7-S110 · Source slide 110

Assumptions: Use the simplified three-role structure taught here; no separate carry vehicle is used.

In the three-entity fund structure, which entity receives the carried interest?

  1. The general partner entity
  2. The management company
  3. The limited partnership itself
  4. The limited partners directly
  5. A separate escrow agent

Correct answer: A

In the simplified structure, the GP entity receives carry. Real structures can route carry through a separate vehicle, so the LPA and entity documents determine the actual recipient.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses management fees with carry.

C. Why this choice falls short

Is the fund vehicle.

D. Why this choice falls short

Identifies the capital providers.

E. Why this choice falls short

May hold funds temporarily but is not the economic carry beneficiary.

Related Week 7 deck

fee research

Easy (0/8)

W7-S112 · Source slide 112

Metrick and Yasuda (2010) found which of the following about fund economics?

  1. Carry is the largest source of manager revenue for the average fund
  2. A preferred return is used by almost every single VC fund
  3. Management fees above 1% are prohibited by regulation
  4. Most manager revenue is fee-based, and hurdles are rarer in VC
  5. VC and buyout funds carry an identical fee and hurdle structure

Correct answer: D

D best summarizes the study’s modeled expected manager revenue and historical hurdle prevalence. It is not a claim about current terms or actual partner compensation.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the average modeled revenue mix.

B. Why this choice falls short

Overstates VC hurdle prevalence.

C. Why this choice falls short

Invents a regulatory ceiling.

E. Why this choice falls short

Ignores differences in the sample.

Source notes

Metrick & Yasuda (2010), The Economics of Private Equity Funds, especially Table 2.

Related Week 7 deck

first distribution tier

Easy (0/8)

W7-S114 · Source slide 114

Assumptions: Distributable cash is available after fees, liabilities, and reserves are addressed. The modeled LPA returns all LP contributed capital before carry.

In this simplified whole-fund waterfall, what is paid first?

  1. Return of the LPs' capital
  2. The GP's full 20% carried interest
  3. The GP catch-up tier in full
  4. The final year's management fee
  5. A discretionary bonus to the LPs

Correct answer: A

The first investor-distribution tier returns LP contributed capital. A preference, GP catch-up, and residual profit split can follow if the agreement includes them and cash remains.

B. Why this choice falls short

Place carry before the capital-return priority.

C. Why this choice falls short

Place carry before the capital-return priority.

D. Why this choice falls short

Is a fund obligation addressed before this distributable-cash waterfall.

E. Why this choice falls short

Is not a stated contractual tier.

Related Week 7 deck

deal-by-deal timing

Easy (0/8)

W7-S116 · Source slide 116

How does an American (deal-by-deal) waterfall differ from a European (whole-fund) waterfall?

  1. The American waterfall always pays a strictly higher carry percentage
  2. The European waterfall skips returning LP capital entirely
  3. The two are identical in essentially every respect
  4. The American waterfall removes any need for a clawback
  5. The American lets the GP earn carry per deal, before full return

Correct answer: E

E refers to the possibility of paying carry on a realized deal before the entire fund’s capital-return threshold is met. The actual timing depends on losses, costs, and the LPA.

A. Why this choice falls short

Confuses distribution timing with carry percentage.

B. Why this choice falls short

Removes the whole-fund capital priority.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the structural difference.

D. Why this choice falls short

Removes a protection that may be especially important when carry is paid early.

Related Week 7 deck

the J-curve

Easy (0/8)

W7-S118 · Source slide 118

Why does a fund's cumulative net cash to LPs trace a J-curve?

  1. Because carry is paid out entirely in year one
  2. Because early capital calls and fees precede exits
  3. Because LPs wire all of their capital on day one
  4. Because management fees are never actually charged
  5. Because portfolio companies are marked up immediately

Correct answer: B

Early calls can finance investments and costs before exits provide distributions. That cash timing can create a J-shaped pattern. The fund is not guaranteed to cross back above zero.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverses normal capital priority.

C. Why this choice falls short

Assumes all commitments are funded immediately.

D. Why this choice falls short

Denies fees.

E. Why this choice falls short

Describes valuation marks, which do not themselves distribute cash.

Related Week 7 deck

skewed venture outcomes

Easy (0/8)

W7-S120 · Source slide 120

Horsley Bridge data from 1985 to 2014 showed roughly what about VC returns?

  1. Returns were spread evenly across all of the deals
  2. The median VC deal returned roughly ten times capital
  3. Historical sample: about 6% of deals drove roughly 60% of returns
  4. Losses were rare, well under 5% of the deals
  5. Nearly every VC fund beat the public market

Correct answer: C

C matches the reported historical concentration of returns. The sample supports an important portfolio lesson; it does not establish the same result for every manager, vintage, or investment.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assumes even outcomes.

B. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes an unsupported median.

D. Why this choice falls short

Understates the reported incidence of losses.

E. Why this choice falls short

Turns deal-level concentration into a universal fund-versus-market claim.

Source notes

Benedict Evans (2016), In praise of failure; aggregate Horsley Bridge data.

Related Week 7 deck

persistence

Easy (0/8)

W7-S122 · Source slide 122

Assumptions: Interpret the choices as summaries of the historical research discussed, not a claim about every fund or current market conditions.

What does the evidence on performance persistence show for venture capital?

  1. VC persistence vanished completely after the year 2000
  2. Persistence is identical in VC and buyout funds today
  3. No private asset class shows any persistence at all
  4. VC persistence has held while buyout's has faded
  5. Only buyout funds still show any persistence today

Correct answer: D

D is the closest summary of the historical comparison. The strength of the evidence depends on the period, metric, and information available at fundraising; it is not a statement that buyout persistence disappeared in every specification.

A. Why this choice falls short

Reverse the VC finding.

B. Why this choice falls short

Claims identical current behavior.

C. Why this choice falls short

Rejects persistence entirely. None is supported by the cited comparison.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reverse the VC finding.

Source notes

Harris, Jenkinson, Kaplan & Stucke (2023), Journal of Corporate Finance 81, 102361.

Related Week 7 deck

Investable capital after a fee step-down

Medium (5/8)

P079 · New quantitative practice

A fund has $90 million of commitments, all of which will be called. It charges 2.00% per year on commitments for the first 4 years, then 1.50% per year on a fixed $52 million invested-capital fee base for the next 3 years. It also pays $2.2 million of fund expenses. Fees and expenses are paid from commitments. Ignore fee offsets, recycling, borrowing, and investment returns. How much capital remains available for investments, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $11.74 million
  2. $85.22 million
  3. $78.26 million
  4. $80.46 million
  5. $75.20 million

Correct answer: C

Initial-period fees = 90×0.02×4 = 7.200. Later fees = 52×0.015×3 = 2.340. Investable capital = 90−9.540−2.2 = $78.26 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is capital consumed by fees and expenses, not capital left to invest.

B. Why this choice falls short

This charges each annual fee only once rather than for its full period.

D. Why this choice falls short

This omits fund expenses.

E. Why this choice falls short

This applies the initial commitment-based fee throughout the fund life.

Related Week 7 deck

Total value to paid-in capital

Medium (3/8)

P080 · New quantitative practice

LPs have paid $72 million into a fund, including fees. They have received $54 million in cash distributions. Their remaining net asset value is $81 million, already net of accrued carry and unpaid fund liabilities. Total commitments are $100 million. What is net TVPI using the paid-in capital denominator, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 1.88×
  2. 0.75×
  3. 0.88×
  4. 1.12×
  5. 1.35×

Correct answer: A

TVPI = (cash distributions + residual NAV)/paid-in capital = (54+81)/72 = 1.88×. DPI and RVPI are 0.75× and 1.12×; together they equal TVPI. Uncalled commitments do not enter the denominator.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is DPI, which counts distributions but excludes residual value.

C. Why this choice falls short

This reports gain relative to paid-in capital, not total value relative to paid-in capital.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is RVPI, which counts residual value but excludes distributions.

E. Why this choice falls short

This uses commitments rather than capital actually paid in.

Related Week 7 deck

LP distribution after return of capital and carry

Medium (4/8)

P081 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $80 million. At final liquidation, the fund has $142 million available for distribution after all fund expenses and fees. The waterfall first returns all LP contributed capital, then allocates remaining profit 20.0% to the GP and the balance to LPs. There is no preferred return, GP capital commitment, or earlier distribution. What total amount goes to LPs, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $113.60 million
  2. $12.40 million
  3. $129.60 million
  4. $49.60 million
  5. $92.40 million

Correct answer: C

Profit = 142−80 = 62. GP carry = 0.2×62 = 12.40. LPs receive capital plus their profit share: 80+(1−0.2)×62 = $129.60 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is the GP carry distribution, not the LP distribution.

D. Why this choice falls short

This includes the LP profit share but omits returned capital.

E. Why this choice falls short

This gives LPs the carry percentage rather than the residual profit percentage.

Related Week 7 deck

Simple preferred return without catch-up

Medium (4/8)

P082 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $70 million at time zero and receive no earlier distributions. The fund distributes $105 million after 3 years. The waterfall returns contributed capital, then pays LPs a 8% annual simple preferred return on that capital, then splits any remaining profit 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP commitment. Fees are already reflected in the available proceeds. What is GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $3.36 million
  2. $5.88 million
  3. $3.64 million
  4. $7.00 million
  5. $21.00 million

Correct answer: C

Simple preferred return = 70×0.08×3 = 16.80. Profit left after capital and preference = 105−70−16.80 = 18.20. With no catch-up, GP carry is 20% of only that remainder: $3.64 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This compounds a preferred return explicitly stated to be simple.

B. Why this choice falls short

This accrues only one year of the simple preferred return.

D. Why this choice falls short

This gives the GP 20% of all profit as if there were full catch-up.

E. Why this choice falls short

This charges carry on capital as well as profit.

Related Week 7 deck

Compounded preferred return without catch-up

Medium (4/8)

P083 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $65 million today, with no interim contributions or distributions. After 4 years, $108 million is available after fees. The waterfall returns capital, pays an 8% annually compounded preferred return to LPs, and allocates any residual 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP capital commitment. What is the GP’s final carry distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $8.60 million
  2. $23.43 million
  3. $4.44 million
  4. $3.91 million
  5. $5.22 million

Correct answer: D

LP preferred profit = 65×[(1.08)^4−1] = 23.4318. Residual after capital and preference = 108−65−23.4318. GP carry = 20% of the residual = $3.91 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This assigns carry on all profit despite the no-catch-up preferred return.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is the LP preferred return, not GP carry.

C. Why this choice falls short

This substitutes simple accrual for the specified annual compounding.

E. Why this choice falls short

This compounds the hurdle for one fewer year.

Related Week 7 deck

Four-tier waterfall with full GP catch-up

Hard (6/8)

P084 · New quantitative practice

At liquidation, $130 million is available. The LPA requires: first, return $80 million of LP capital; second, pay a stipulated $16 million accrued preferred return to LPs; third, allocate 100% to the GP until its cumulative share of distributed profit equals 20%; fourth, split further profit 80% LP and 20% GP. Contributed capital is excluded from the profit calculation. There are no GP contributions or earlier distributions. What is total GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $26.00 million
  2. $4.00 million
  3. $10.00 million
  4. $6.80 million
  5. $9.36 million

Correct answer: C

Full catch-up C solves C/(16+C) = .20, so C = 16×.20/.80 = 4.00. Remaining cash = 130−80−16−4.00 = 30.00. GP total = 4.00+.20×30.00 = $10.00 million. Because catch-up completes, this equals 20% of total profit.

A. Why this choice falls short

This includes returned capital in the carry base.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is the catch-up tranche alone, before the final residual split.

D. Why this choice falls short

This omits the catch-up and pays carry only on profit above the preferred return.

E. Why this choice falls short

This sizes full catch-up as 20% of preferred profit instead of 20%/80% of it.

Related Week 7 deck

An incomplete 80% GP catch-up tier

Hard (6/8)

P085 · New quantitative practice

A waterfall has $123 million available. It first returns $100 million of LP capital and pays LPs $18 million of accrued preferred profit. The next tier allocates 80% to the GP and 20% to LPs until the GP has received 20% of all distributed profit, excluding returned capital. Any later residual is split 20% GP and 80% LP. There are no prior distributions or GP contributions. What total does the GP receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $14.40 million
  2. $4.60 million
  3. $4.00 million
  4. $5.00 million
  5. $1.00 million

Correct answer: C

Cash remaining after capital and preference is 5.00. A full 80% catch-up tranche T solves .80T = .20×(18+T), so T = 6.00. Only 5.00 is available, so the catch-up is incomplete. GP receives .80×5.00 = $4.00 million; there is no final residual tier.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies the catch-up percentage to preferred profit already paid to LPs.

B. Why this choice falls short

This assumes catch-up fully completes before cash runs out.

D. Why this choice falls short

This allocates 100% of the catch-up tier to the GP rather than 80%.

E. Why this choice falls short

This applies the final carry split while the catch-up tier is still incomplete.

Related Week 7 deck

Catch-up after staggered capital calls

Hard (6/8)

P086 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $55 million 4 years before liquidation and $35 million 2 years before liquidation. There are no earlier distributions. Each contribution earns an 8% annually compounded preferred return only for the time it is outstanding. After capital and all preferred profit are paid, a 100% GP catch-up makes GP profit equal 20% of cumulative distributed profit, followed by an 80/20 residual split. Assume enough cash to complete catch-up. What is the catch-up tranche alone, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $25.65 million
  2. $8.11 million
  3. $5.13 million
  4. $5.80 million
  5. $6.41 million

Correct answer: E

Preferred profit = 55×(1.08^4−1)+35×(1.08^2−1) = 25.650893. Catch-up C solves C/(25.650893+C)=.20. Therefore C=25.650893×.20/.80 = $6.41 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is preferred profit paid to LPs, not GP catch-up.

B. Why this choice falls short

This accrues the later contribution for the full initial investment period.

C. Why this choice falls short

This takes 20% of LP preferred profit rather than solving GP/(LP profit+GP)=20%.

D. Why this choice falls short

This uses simple rather than compounded preferred returns.

Related Week 7 deck

Cash clawback after applying escrow

Hard (7/8)

P087 · New quantitative practice

A fund invests $28 million in Deal A and $32 million in Deal B. Deal A exits first for $76 million, and the GP is allocated 20% of that deal’s profit as carry; 25% of this carry is held in escrow and the rest is paid in cash. Deal B later exits for $16 million. Final permitted GP carry is 20% of aggregate fund profit after both investment costs. Apply escrow first to any overpaid carry. Ignore taxes, fees, and preferences. How much additional cash must the GP return beyond escrow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $7.20 million
  2. $5.60 million
  3. $2.40 million
  4. $3.20 million
  5. $0.80 million

Correct answer: E

Early carry = .20×(76−28) = 9.60; escrow = 0.25×9.60 = 2.40. Final carry = .20×(76+16−28−32) = 6.40. Total clawback = 3.20. Additional cash beyond escrow = max(0,3.20−2.40) = $0.80 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is all early cash carry paid to the GP, not the amount that must be repaid.

B. Why this choice falls short

This adds escrow instead of using it to meet the repayment obligation.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is the escrow balance, not the additional GP cash required.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is total overpaid carry before applying available escrow.

Related Week 7 deck

LP net IRR after carry

Medium (4/8)

P088 · New quantitative practice

LPs pay $50 million at time zero, including all fees and fund expenses. There are no other capital calls or interim distributions. After 6 years, the fund has $110 million available before carry. LPs first receive their full $50 million back; remaining profit is split 80% LP and 20% GP, with no preferred return. What is LP net annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 11.9%
  2. 16.0%
  3. 9.9%
  4. 96.0%
  5. 14.0%

Correct answer: A

LP final proceeds = 50+.80×(110−50) = 98.00. Solve −50+98.00/(1+IRR)^6=0. LP net IRR = (98.00/50)^(1/6)−1 = 11.9%.

B. Why this choice falls short

This divides the total return by years instead of compounding.

C. Why this choice falls short

This charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.

D. Why this choice falls short

This reports the total LP holding-period return rather than annual IRR.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is the return before carry, not the LP’s net return.

Related Week 7 deck

Investable capital after a fee step-down

Medium (5/8)

P089 · New quantitative practice

A fund has $120 million of commitments, all of which will be called. It charges 2.25% per year on commitments for the first 3 years, then 1.75% per year on a fixed $70 million invested-capital fee base for the next 4 years. It also pays $3.0 million of fund expenses. Fees and expenses are paid from commitments. Ignore fee offsets, recycling, borrowing, and investment returns. How much capital remains available for investments, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $107.00 million
  2. $98.10 million
  3. $104.00 million
  4. $16.00 million
  5. $113.08 million

Correct answer: C

Initial-period fees = 120×0.0225×3 = 8.100. Later fees = 70×0.0175×4 = 4.900. Investable capital = 120−13.000−3 = $104.00 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This omits fund expenses.

B. Why this choice falls short

This applies the initial commitment-based fee throughout the fund life.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is capital consumed by fees and expenses, not capital left to invest.

E. Why this choice falls short

This charges each annual fee only once rather than for its full period.

Related Week 7 deck

Total value to paid-in capital

Medium (3/8)

P090 · New quantitative practice

LPs have paid $85 million into a fund, including fees. They have received $68 million in cash distributions. Their remaining net asset value is $102 million, already net of accrued carry and unpaid fund liabilities. Total commitments are $120 million. What is net TVPI using the paid-in capital denominator, rounded to two decimals?

  1. 1.20×
  2. 1.42×
  3. 0.80×
  4. 2.00×
  5. 1.00×

Correct answer: D

TVPI = (cash distributions + residual NAV)/paid-in capital = (68+102)/85 = 2.00×. DPI and RVPI are 0.80× and 1.20×; together they equal TVPI. Uncalled commitments do not enter the denominator.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is RVPI, which counts residual value but excludes distributions.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses commitments rather than capital actually paid in.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is DPI, which counts distributions but excludes residual value.

E. Why this choice falls short

This reports gain relative to paid-in capital, not total value relative to paid-in capital.

Related Week 7 deck

LP distribution after return of capital and carry

Medium (4/8)

P091 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $100 million. At final liquidation, the fund has $178 million available for distribution after all fund expenses and fees. The waterfall first returns all LP contributed capital, then allocates remaining profit 22.5% to the GP and the balance to LPs. There is no preferred return, GP capital commitment, or earlier distribution. What total amount goes to LPs, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $160.45 million
  2. $137.95 million
  3. $60.45 million
  4. $17.55 million
  5. $117.55 million

Correct answer: A

Profit = 178−100 = 78. GP carry = 0.225×78 = 17.55. LPs receive capital plus their profit share: 100+(1−0.225)×78 = $160.45 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.

C. Why this choice falls short

This includes the LP profit share but omits returned capital.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the GP carry distribution, not the LP distribution.

E. Why this choice falls short

This gives LPs the carry percentage rather than the residual profit percentage.

Related Week 7 deck

Simple preferred return without catch-up

Medium (4/8)

P092 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $90 million at time zero and receive no earlier distributions. The fund distributes $130 million after 4 years. The waterfall returns contributed capital, then pays LPs a 7% annual simple preferred return on that capital, then splits any remaining profit 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP commitment. Fees are already reflected in the available proceeds. What is GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $6.74 million
  2. $8.00 million
  3. $2.41 million
  4. $26.00 million
  5. $2.96 million

Correct answer: E

Simple preferred return = 90×0.07×4 = 25.20. Profit left after capital and preference = 130−90−25.20 = 14.80. With no catch-up, GP carry is 20% of only that remainder: $2.96 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This accrues only one year of the simple preferred return.

B. Why this choice falls short

This gives the GP 20% of all profit as if there were full catch-up.

C. Why this choice falls short

This compounds a preferred return explicitly stated to be simple.

D. Why this choice falls short

This charges carry on capital as well as profit.

Related Week 7 deck

Compounded preferred return without catch-up

Medium (4/8)

P093 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $85 million today, with no interim contributions or distributions. After 3 years, $132 million is available after fees. The waterfall returns capital, pays an 8% annually compounded preferred return to LPs, and allocates any residual 80% to LPs and 20% to the GP. There is no catch-up or GP capital commitment. What is the GP’s final carry distribution, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $22.08 million
  2. $6.57 million
  3. $4.98 million
  4. $9.40 million
  5. $5.32 million

Correct answer: C

LP preferred profit = 85×[(1.08)^3−1] = 22.0755. Residual after capital and preference = 132−85−22.0755. GP carry = 20% of the residual = $4.98 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is the LP preferred return, not GP carry.

B. Why this choice falls short

This compounds the hurdle for one fewer year.

D. Why this choice falls short

This assigns carry on all profit despite the no-catch-up preferred return.

E. Why this choice falls short

This substitutes simple accrual for the specified annual compounding.

Related Week 7 deck

Four-tier waterfall with full GP catch-up

Hard (6/8)

P094 · New quantitative practice

At liquidation, $165 million is available. The LPA requires: first, return $100 million of LP capital; second, pay a stipulated $22 million accrued preferred return to LPs; third, allocate 100% to the GP until its cumulative share of distributed profit equals 20%; fourth, split further profit 80% LP and 20% GP. Contributed capital is excluded from the profit calculation. There are no GP contributions or earlier distributions. What is total GP carry, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $12.12 million
  2. $8.60 million
  3. $13.00 million
  4. $5.50 million
  5. $33.00 million

Correct answer: C

Full catch-up C solves C/(22+C) = .20, so C = 22×.20/.80 = 5.50. Remaining cash = 165−100−22−5.50 = 37.50. GP total = 5.50+.20×37.50 = $13.00 million. Because catch-up completes, this equals 20% of total profit.

A. Why this choice falls short

This sizes full catch-up as 20% of preferred profit instead of 20%/80% of it.

B. Why this choice falls short

This omits the catch-up and pays carry only on profit above the preferred return.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the catch-up tranche alone, before the final residual split.

E. Why this choice falls short

This includes returned capital in the carry base.

Related Week 7 deck

An incomplete 80% GP catch-up tier

Hard (6/8)

P095 · New quantitative practice

A waterfall has $151 million available. It first returns $120 million of LP capital and pays LPs $24 million of accrued preferred profit. The next tier allocates 80% to the GP and 20% to LPs until the GP has received 20% of all distributed profit, excluding returned capital. Any later residual is split 20% GP and 80% LP. There are no prior distributions or GP contributions. What total does the GP receive, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $19.20 million
  2. $5.60 million
  3. $7.00 million
  4. $6.20 million
  5. $1.40 million

Correct answer: B

Cash remaining after capital and preference is 7.00. A full 80% catch-up tranche T solves .80T = .20×(24+T), so T = 8.00. Only 7.00 is available, so the catch-up is incomplete. GP receives .80×7.00 = $5.60 million; there is no final residual tier.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies the catch-up percentage to preferred profit already paid to LPs.

C. Why this choice falls short

This allocates 100% of the catch-up tier to the GP rather than 80%.

D. Why this choice falls short

This assumes catch-up fully completes before cash runs out.

E. Why this choice falls short

This applies the final carry split while the catch-up tier is still incomplete.

Related Week 7 deck

Catch-up after staggered capital calls

Hard (6/8)

P096 · New quantitative practice

LPs contribute $70 million 3 years before liquidation and $40 million 1 years before liquidation. There are no earlier distributions. Each contribution earns an 8% annually compounded preferred return only for the time it is outstanding. After capital and all preferred profit are paid, a 100% GP catch-up makes GP profit equal 20% of cumulative distributed profit, followed by an 80/20 residual split. Assume enough cash to complete catch-up. What is the catch-up tranche alone, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $21.38 million
  2. $7.14 million
  3. $4.28 million
  4. $5.34 million
  5. $5.00 million

Correct answer: D

Preferred profit = 70×(1.08^3−1)+40×(1.08^1−1) = 21.379840. Catch-up C solves C/(21.379840+C)=.20. Therefore C=21.379840×.20/.80 = $5.34 million.

A. Why this choice falls short

This is preferred profit paid to LPs, not GP catch-up.

B. Why this choice falls short

This accrues the later contribution for the full initial investment period.

C. Why this choice falls short

This takes 20% of LP preferred profit rather than solving GP/(LP profit+GP)=20%.

E. Why this choice falls short

This uses simple rather than compounded preferred returns.

Related Week 7 deck

Cash clawback after applying escrow

Hard (7/8)

P097 · New quantitative practice

A fund invests $35 million in Deal A and $40 million in Deal B. Deal A exits first for $93 million, and the GP is allocated 20% of that deal’s profit as carry; 25% of this carry is held in escrow and the rest is paid in cash. Deal B later exits for $22 million. Final permitted GP carry is 20% of aggregate fund profit after both investment costs. Apply escrow first to any overpaid carry. Ignore taxes, fees, and preferences. How much additional cash must the GP return beyond escrow, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $0.70 million
  2. $3.60 million
  3. $8.70 million
  4. $6.50 million
  5. $2.90 million

Correct answer: A

Early carry = .20×(93−35) = 11.60; escrow = 0.25×11.60 = 2.90. Final carry = .20×(93+22−35−40) = 8.00. Total clawback = 3.60. Additional cash beyond escrow = max(0,3.60−2.90) = $0.70 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This is total overpaid carry before applying available escrow.

C. Why this choice falls short

This is all early cash carry paid to the GP, not the amount that must be repaid.

D. Why this choice falls short

This adds escrow instead of using it to meet the repayment obligation.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is the escrow balance, not the additional GP cash required.

Related Week 7 deck

LP net IRR after carry

Medium (4/8)

P098 · New quantitative practice

LPs pay $60 million at time zero, including all fees and fund expenses. There are no other capital calls or interim distributions. After 7 years, the fund has $138 million available before carry. LPs first receive their full $60 million back; remaining profit is split 80% LP and 20% GP, with no preferred return. What is LP net annual IRR, expressed as a percentage and rounded to one decimal place?

  1. 104.0%
  2. 10.7%
  3. 14.9%
  4. 12.6%
  5. 9.1%

Correct answer: B

LP final proceeds = 60+.80×(138−60) = 122.40. Solve −60+122.40/(1+IRR)^7=0. LP net IRR = (122.40/60)^(1/7)−1 = 10.7%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reports the total LP holding-period return rather than annual IRR.

C. Why this choice falls short

This divides the total return by years instead of compounding.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the return before carry, not the LP’s net return.

E. Why this choice falls short

This charges carry on returned capital as well as profit.

Related Week 7 deck

Week 8: Capital Structure and Financing Strategy

fit the funding to the founder

Medium (4/8)

W8-S006 · Source slide 6

A founder can afford a $40,000 pilot, wants an independently owned business, and expects early customer receipts. Moving faster offers no demonstrated advantage. Which starting strategy best fits these facts?

  1. Raise a large VC round to maximize the cash available for expansion.
  2. Borrow against personal assets to preserve all operating flexibility.
  3. Fund a limited pilot and reinvest receipts while testing demand.
  4. Sell a large equity stake before estimating the pilot’s cash needs.
  5. Choose the lowest quoted interest rate before setting the pilot’s scope.

Correct answer: C

The pilot fits the stated personal loss capacity, cash timing, and independence goal. Results can inform whether a larger raise is worthwhile.

A. Why this choice falls short

Introduce ownership and growth commitments without a demonstrated need.

B. Why this choice falls short

Adds personal downside and lender constraints.

D. Why this choice falls short

Introduce ownership and growth commitments without a demonstrated need.

E. Why this choice falls short

Chooses financing before defining the operating requirement.

Related Week 8 deck

distinguish usable cash from reported cash

Medium (4/8)

W8-S010 · Source slide 10

Assumptions: No other financing flows. Grant cash cannot fund this plan or its reserve.

A company reports $1.20 million cash, including $0.30 million restricted to an unrelated grant project. Its operating plan has $2.25 million of net cash outflow to the lowest cash point. It needs a $0.40 million reserve and pays $0.10 million of closing fees. What gross raise funds this plan?

  1. $1.35 million.
  2. $1.55 million.
  3. $2.75 million.
  4. $1.85 million.
  5. $1.75 million.

Correct answer: D

Only $1.20m − $0.30m = $0.90m is available. Required funding is $2.25m + $0.40m + $0.10m − $0.90m = $1.85m.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits fees and the reserve.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses restricted cash for an ineligible purpose.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores available cash.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits closing fees.

Related Week 8 deck

avoid a financing-driven NPV error

Medium (4/8)

W8-S014 · Source slide 14

An expansion has expected cash flows before interest and debt principal. A defensible WACC for this project’s risk and financing policy is 14%; a lender quotes 9%. Which valuation treatment is consistent?

  1. Discount those cash flows at 14%, keeping debt payments outside FCFF.
  2. Discount those cash flows at 9%, because that is the quoted borrowing rate.
  3. Subtract interest from those cash flows, then discount the result at 14%.
  4. Average 9% and 14% equally without checking capital structure weights.
  5. Use the company’s historical loan coupon instead of the project’s risk.

Correct answer: A

FCFF belongs to all capital providers. Its rate must match the operating risk and financing policy; the loan quote prices only the debt claim.

B. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes a debt rate for WACC.

C. Why this choice falls short

Mixes equity-related cash deductions with an FCFF rate.

D. Why this choice falls short

Invents weights.

E. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes historical financing terms for the relevant opportunity cost.

Related Week 8 deck

why cheap debt is not free value

Easy (1/8)

W8-S018 · Source slide 18

In the MM no-tax benchmark, a firm replaces some equity with cheaper debt while its operating assets and investment policy stay unchanged. Why does this not automatically reduce its overall required return?

  1. The firm’s operating projects become less profitable whenever it borrows.
  2. Debt and equity investors must receive the same required return.
  3. The loan proceeds count as new operating income for the shareholders.
  4. The remaining equity becomes riskier and requires a higher return.
  5. The accounting interest expense exactly equals the equity dilution avoided.

Correct answer: D

The financing change reallocates operating risk. The higher equity return offsets the use of lower-return debt under MM’s assumptions.

A. Why this choice falls short

Changes the fixed operating assumptions.

B. Why this choice falls short

Confuses a common underlying business with different claims.

C. Why this choice falls short

Mistakes financing cash for income.

E. Why this choice falls short

Compares an expense with an ownership percentage.

Related Week 8 deck

a startup’s tax-shield decision

Medium (4/8)

W8-S022 · Source slide 22

A loss-making startup has uncertain future taxable income and large costs if debt forces it to cut essential development. Which conclusion best applies the tradeoff framework?

  1. Use the statutory tax rate to value an immediate tax shield on every dollar borrowed.
  2. Weigh realizable tax savings against distress costs; little or no debt may be best.
  3. Ignore future deductions because a current tax loss makes them permanently worthless.
  4. Borrow to the point where the debt return and equity return become equal.
  5. Target the debt percentage used by profitable peers before testing repayment capacity.

Correct answer: B

The benefit depends on whether and when tax savings are usable; the costs depend on the consequences of financial distress. The optimum can be at zero debt.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assumes immediate usability.

C. Why this choice falls short

Confuses no current benefit with no possible future benefit.

D. Why this choice falls short

Uses the wrong optimality condition.

E. Why this choice falls short

Imports a peer ratio without testing this company’s constraints.

Related Week 8 deck

when the pecking order is constrained

Medium (4/8)

W8-S025 · Source slide 25

A pre-revenue company has a promising but uncertain project, no retained cash, and no credible way to service a conventional loan. What follows from the pecking-order discussion?

  1. Delay any equity issue until conventional debt has been fully exhausted.
  2. Select the lowest loan coupon and treat the repayment plan as a later decision.
  3. Treat the founder’s projected future sales as available internal funding today.
  4. Infer that an equity offer means the founder believes the company is overvalued.
  5. Consider equity-like funding or a smaller staged plan within available resources.

Correct answer: E

The theoretical preference does not create internal cash or debt capacity. Risk-bearing funding or a smaller milestone can fit the actual constraints.

A. Why this choice falls short

Turns a preference into a compulsory sequence.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores repayment.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats a forecast as current cash.

D. Why this choice falls short

Turns a possible information signal into proof.

Related Week 8 deck

identify the financing conflict

Easy (1/8)

W8-S029 · Source slide 29

After borrowing, shareholders prefer a new project with lower expected total company value but more upside if it succeeds. Lenders bear more loss if it fails. Which concern most directly explains a covenant restricting that change?

  1. Debt overhang: shareholders reject a valuable new investment.
  2. Free-cash-flow waste: managers retain surplus cash after all worthwhile investment.
  3. Risk shifting: shareholders benefit from a risk increase at lenders’ expense.
  4. Adverse selection: outside investors cannot infer value before funds are raised.
  5. A tax-shield limit: interest deductions are deferred until future taxable years.

Correct answer: C

This is an incentive problem after financing: shareholders may prefer a payoff shift that hurts creditors and lowers total value. The covenant limits that risk transfer.

A. Why this choice falls short

Is underinvestment, not the described risky switch.

B. Why this choice falls short

Concerns excess cash.

D. Why this choice falls short

Concerns hidden information before financing.

E. Why this choice falls short

Concerns tax deductions, not project-selection incentives.

Related Week 8 deck

what beta does and does not measure

Medium (4/8)

W8-S033 · Source slide 33

Assumptions: Use the same currency, risk-free rate, and market risk premium.

Two firms have the same estimated equity beta. One also faces a large, company-specific technical risk that is unrelated to the market. Under the basic CAPM for diversified investors, which statement is correct?

  1. The technical risk necessarily gives that firm a higher CAPM required return.
  2. The shared beta implies the two firms have the same probability of failure.
  3. The technical risk can be omitted from expected cash flows because it is diversifiable.
  4. A founder’s personal concentration changes the beta used by all market investors.
  5. Their CAPM returns can match even though expected cash flows and failure risks differ.

Correct answer: E

With the same risk-free rate and market premium, the same beta gives the same CAPM return. Company-specific technical risk still affects expected cash flows and outcomes.

A. Why this choice falls short

Equates total risk with systematic risk.

B. Why this choice falls short

Equates beta with failure probability.

C. Why this choice falls short

Removes a real operating risk from the forecast.

D. Why this choice falls short

Conflates personal exposure with market beta.

Related Week 8 deck

Startup risk and project NPV

Hard (6/8)

W8-S036 · Source slide 36

An all-equity startup project requires $3 million today. It produces no intermediate cash flows and is liquidated at the end of Year 2.

OutcomeProbabilityCash paid to equity at the end of Year 2
Commercial success70%$6.0 million
Commercial failure30%$0.4 million

The risk-free rate is 4%, the project's equity beta is 1.6, and the market equity risk premium is 5%. Assume the resulting CAPM required return is appropriate for these probability-weighted equity cash flows. Investors are diversified; no additional risk adjustment is required. The Year 2 cash amounts are after all remaining costs and taxes and include any recovery proceeds.

What is the project's NPV today, rounded to the nearest $1,000?

  1. NPV: +$1,783,000.
  2. NPV: +$348,000.
  3. NPV: +$444,000.
  4. NPV: +$1,320,000.
  5. NPV: −$589,000.

Correct answer: C

CAPM cost of equity = 4% + 1.6 × 5% = 12%.

Expected end-of-Year-2 cash flow = 70% × $6 million + 30% × $0.4 million = $4.32 million.

NPV = −$3 million + $4.32 million / 1.12² = $443,877.55, rounded to +$444,000.

The probabilities capture success and failure outcomes. The required return prices the systematic risk of the expected cash flows under the explicit assumption. Applying another success-probability haircut would double-count that adjustment.

A. Why this choice falls short

Values the success payoff as though success were certain.

B. Why this choice falls short

Omits recovery cash received in the failure outcome.

D. Why this choice falls short

Probability-weights the outcomes but does not discount the future cash.

E. Why this choice falls short

Applies the success probability again after it has already been included in expected cash flow.

Related Week 8 deck

use comparables consistently

Medium (4/8)

W8-S039 · Source slide 39

A private startup will borrow modestly. Its closest public operating peers use much more leverage. Under the stated beta model, which approach best estimates the startup’s equity risk?

  1. Use peer equity betas unchanged because the firms have similar operating exposure.
  2. Remove each peer’s leverage, then apply the startup’s proposed market-value D/E.
  3. Remove peer leverage and use the resulting business beta directly for the startup’s equity.
  4. Remove leverage using the startup’s D/E, then reapply that same D/E to the result.
  5. Use book-value D/E for both adjustments because the startup’s shares do not trade.

Correct answer: B

Peer equity betas include peer financing risk. Unlever using each peer’s structure, then relever business risk for the startup. Keep tax assumptions consistent with the model.

A. Why this choice falls short

Retains excess peer leverage.

C. Why this choice falls short

Omits the startup’s positive leverage.

D. Why this choice falls short

Removes and reapplies the same wrong structure.

E. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes accounting balances for the market-value capital weights the model requires.

Related Week 8 deck

Startup beta and CAPM

Hard (7/8)

W8-S042 · Source slide 42

A profitable young private company lacks a traded share-price history. An analyst uses two public peers to estimate its cost of equity for diversified investors.

PeerLevered equity betaMarket-value debt-to-equity ratio
A1.680.50
B1.320.125

Assume debt has zero beta and use the tax-adjusted relationship between unlevered beta and equity beta. Both peers and the target face a 20% marginal corporate tax rate and can use interest deductions in the year interest is paid. Give the two unlevered peer betas equal weight. The target's long-run market-value debt-to-equity ratio is 0.25.

The risk-free rate is 4% and the market equity risk premium is 5%. No separate size, illiquidity, or company-specific premium is required for this exercise.

What target equity beta and CAPM cost of equity result?

  1. Target equity beta: 1.500; cost of equity: 11.50%.
  2. Target equity beta: 1.200; cost of equity: 10.00%.
  3. Target equity beta: 1.800; cost of equity: 13.00%.
  4. Target equity beta: 1.392; cost of equity: 10.96%.
  5. Target equity beta: 1.440; cost of equity: 11.20%.

Correct answer: E

Peer A unlevered beta = 1.68 / [1 + (1 − 20%) × 0.50] = 1.200.

Peer B unlevered beta = 1.32 / [1 + (1 − 20%) × 0.125] = 1.200. Their equal-weight average is 1.200.

Target levered beta = 1.20 × [1 + (1 − 20%) × 0.25] = 1.440.

Cost of equity = 4% + 1.44 × 5% = 11.20%. Beta measures exposure to systematic market risk under this model; it is not the probability that the startup fails. The supplied zero-debt-beta and tax assumptions are deliberate simplifications.

A. Why this choice falls short

Averages the observed levered peer betas without removing peer leverage or applying target leverage.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses the unlevered beta as the target equity beta and omits relevering.

C. Why this choice falls short

Relevers the average of already levered peer betas, double-counting leverage.

D. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes the target debt-to-value ratio of 0.20 for the required debt-to-equity ratio of 0.25.

Related Week 8 deck

The weighted cost of capital

Hard (7/8)

W8-S045 · Source slide 45

A young profitable firm estimates the following financing inputs:

Current market value of equity: $24 million.

Current market value of debt: $8 million.

Book value of equity: $12 million.

Annual interest rate on an existing loan: 6%; current annual borrowing rate for new comparable debt, before tax: 9%.

Risk-free rate: 4%; equity beta: 1.5; market equity risk premium: 6%.

The marginal corporate income tax rate is 25%, and the firm can use interest deductions in the year interest is paid. Its current market-value financing proportions are its long-run target, and the supplied equity beta is appropriate for that target. A planned financing raises equal dollar amounts of new debt and equity, but the firm plans to rebalance back to its stated target proportions.

What WACC should discount FCFF under these assumptions, rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 9.88%
  2. 10.50%
  3. 10.88%
  4. 11.44%
  5. 12.00%

Correct answer: D

Cost of equity = 4% + 1.5 × 6% = 13%. Equity weight = $24/($24 + $8) = 75%; debt weight = 25%.

After-tax debt cost = 9% × (1 − 25%) = 6.75%.

WACC = 75% × 13% + 25% × 6.75% = 11.4375%, or 11.44%. Book equity, an old coupon, and a single financing round's mix do not replace the specified market-value target and current costs.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses the proposed new-money mix as though it were the firm’s target market-value capital structure.

B. Why this choice falls short

Weights debt and equity using book equity rather than market equity.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses the historical coupon rather than the current marginal cost of debt.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits the usable interest tax benefit.

Related Week 8 deck

challenge a misleading WACC result

Hard (6/8)

W8-S048 · Source slide 48

A spreadsheet replaces equity with debt while keeping both required returns fixed. WACC falls at every step, so the analyst recommends the maximum debt available. What is the strongest correction?

  1. Reprice the claims at each leverage level and test taxes, cash headroom, and distress.
  2. Keep the rates fixed, but substitute book values for market-value weights.
  3. Use the loan coupon for all cash flows once debt exceeds half the funding.
  4. Add the full tax shield to a value already using the same shield through WACC.
  5. Choose the mix that produces the least immediate ownership dilution.

Correct answer: A

The analysis holds financing risk constant while increasing it. A credible comparison updates the rates and constraints and checks whether the company can survive its obligations.

B. Why this choice falls short

Does not repair the risk assumption.

C. Why this choice falls short

Discounts the wrong claim.

D. Why this choice falls short

Counts the tax benefit twice.

E. Why this choice falls short

Optimizes dilution while ignoring value and cash risk.

Related Week 8 deck

annual coverage and repayment timing

Hard (6/8)

W8-S052 · Source slide 52

Downside cash available for debt service is $0.90 million, all received in month 9. Policy requires annual DSCR of at least 1.50×. Loan A requires $0.54 million in month 6. Loan B requires $0.60 million across months 10–12. No cash above the protected reserve or committed refinancing is available earlier. Which conclusion is supported?

  1. Prefer A because its annual coverage exceeds B’s.
  2. Approve either loan because both annual ratios meet policy.
  3. Prefer A because its earlier maturity reduces refinancing exposure.
  4. B passes these tests; verify remaining covenants and payment details.
  5. Limit loan principal to $0.60 million regardless of repayment schedule.

Correct answer: D

Annual DSCR is 1.67× for A and 1.50× for B. A matures before the available cash arrives. B’s stated payments follow collections and meet the coverage threshold.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the payment date.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats an annual ratio as sufficient.

C. Why this choice falls short

Overlooks A’s actual need for refinancing.

E. Why this choice falls short

Mistakes an annual debt-service limit for a loan-principal limit.

Related Week 8 deck

distinguish new funding from capital weights

Medium (3/8)

W8-S055 · Source slide 55

Assumptions: Use the stated post-transaction structure, with no other capital claims.

A firm raises $0.60 million of debt and $1.40 million of equity. Immediately afterward, all debt has a market value of $0.60 million and all equity, including existing owners’ shares, is worth $15.40 million. Which debt weight belongs in a WACC using this capital structure?

  1. 30.00%, using debt as a share of the new funds raised.
  2. 4.29%, dividing debt by the $14.00 million pre-money equity value.
  3. 3.90%, dividing debt by the $15.40 million post-money equity value.
  4. 3.75%, dividing debt by total debt and equity value of $16.00 million.
  5. 70.00%, using new equity as a share of the funds raised.

Correct answer: D

$0.60m ÷ ($0.60m + $15.40m) = 3.75%. The equity weight is 96.25%. The funding-flow split does not measure the value of all existing claims.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses only this round’s cash.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses pre-money equity alone.

C. Why this choice falls short

Calculates D/E instead of D/(D + E).

E. Why this choice falls short

Uses the wrong source and denominator.

Related Week 8 deck

Debt capacity and funding

Hard (7/8)

W8-S058 · Source slide 58

A company needs $3 million today to fund expansion and its required cash reserve. It has $400,000 of internal cash available after protecting existing operating needs. The remaining amount must come from a new loan and new equity.

Each year, interest is 10% of the principal outstanding at the start of that year. Interest and one-third of the original principal are paid at each year-end for three years. The lender requires a debt-service coverage ratio of at least 1.50 in each year.

YearDownside cash available for debt service, after taxes and required reinvestment
1$780,000
2$650,000
3$550,000

Debt service includes interest and principal. There is no existing debt, fee, balloon payment, or refinancing. All other lending conditions are satisfied at or below the maximum loan permitted by these annual tests, and equity is available for the balance.

What is the maximum loan and minimum new equity required, rounded to $0.01 million?

  1. Maximum loan: $1.00 million; minimum new equity: $1.60 million.
  2. Maximum loan: $1.20 million; minimum new equity: $1.40 million.
  3. Maximum loan: $1.08 million; minimum new equity: $1.52 million.
  4. Maximum loan: $1.10 million; minimum new equity: $1.50 million.
  5. Maximum loan: $1.00 million; minimum new equity: $2.00 million.

Correct answer: A

Let L be the original loan. Year 1 debt service is L/3 + 10% × L; Year 2 is L/3 + 10% × 2L/3; Year 3 is L/3 + 10% × L/3.

YearDebt service as a share of original loanMaximum loan at 1.50 coverage
143.3333%$1,200,000
240.0000%$1,083,333.33
336.6667%$1,000,000

The third year binds. With a $1 million loan, coverage is 1.80×, 1.625×, and 1.50×, respectively.

Minimum new equity = $3 million − $0.4 million internal cash − $1 million debt = $1.6 million. A loan that passes the first year can still be too large for a later year's cash flow.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses only the first-year coverage test and ignores the tighter later-year test.

C. Why this choice falls short

Uses only the second-year limit instead of enforcing coverage in every year.

D. Why this choice falls short

Uses aggregate three-year coverage, allowing a shortfall in an individual year.

E. Why this choice falls short

Finds debt capacity correctly but omits the $400,000 of available internal cash from the funding bridge.

Related Week 8 deck

evaluate the debt bridge

Medium (4/8)

W8-S062 · Source slide 62

A startup is offered venture debt with a low coupon, warrants, a minimum-cash covenant, and repayment before its next uncommitted equity round. Management says the loan guarantees extra runway. What is the best response?

  1. Compare the coupon with equity dilution and choose the smaller percentage.
  2. Model all payments and draw conditions under a delayed next round.
  3. Count the full facility as cash even if later draws require performance milestones.
  4. Assume the lender will waive covenants because acceleration would hurt the company.
  5. Use the expected next-round valuation as proof the debt can be repaid on time.

Correct answer: B

Useful runway depends on accessible proceeds less fees, service, and restricted cash, including when the next round is delayed or absent. The contract determines remedies and availability.

A. Why this choice falls short

Compares different measures.

C. Why this choice falls short

Treats conditional access as cash.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assumes lender discretion will favor the borrower.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats estimated value as timely cash repayment.

Related Week 8 deck

Interest coverage and the maturity gap

Medium (4/8)

W8-S065 · Source slide 65

A company has a $1.2m bullet loan at 10% annual interest, due in full at Year 2. At that date, cash before the final interest and principal payments is forecast at $1.4m. The company must retain a $0.3m operating floor. Earlier interest is already paid, and no refinancing is committed.

What additional cash is needed at maturity to pay the loan and retain the floor?

  1. $0.10 million.
  2. $0.12 million.
  3. $0.22 million.
  4. $0.30 million.
  5. $1.32 million.

Correct answer: C

Final interest is $1.2m × 10% = $0.12m; total maturity payment is $1.32m. Remaining cash is $1.4m − $1.32m = $0.08m.

The floor shortfall is $0.30m − $0.08m = $0.22m.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits final interest.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reports interest alone.

D. Why this choice falls short

Reports the entire reserve.

E. Why this choice falls short

Reports the payment rather than the incremental cash gap. Paying scheduled interest earlier does not establish capacity to repay principal.

Related Week 8 deck

understand the convertible obligation

Medium (4/8)

W8-S068 · Source slide 68

A founder compares a standard YC SAFE with an interest-bearing convertible note that matures in 18 months. Both contain valuation caps. Which analysis is most important before choosing?

  1. Treat both as conventional loans because both have a valuation cap.
  2. Exclude both from fully diluted cap-table analysis until they convert.
  3. Model both conversion outcomes and the note’s maturity obligations.
  4. Compare the caps alone because they fully determine ownership and control.
  5. Assume the cap fixes the valuation of the next priced equity round.

Correct answer: C

Both instruments create economic claims that can dilute ownership. The note also creates debt obligations whose interest and maturity matter if the next financing is delayed.

A. Why this choice falls short

Confuses a pricing term with debt status.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the claims already promised.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores conversion details and other rights.

E. Why this choice falls short

Treats a conversion cap as a guaranteed future valuation.

Related Week 8 deck

compare the rights, not just the price

Medium (4/8)

W8-S072 · Source slide 72

Assumptions: All proceeds are available to equity; one preferred class; no debt, fees, dividends, or other claims.

Two investors each offer $2 million for 20% ownership on conversion. Offer A has a 1× non-participating preference; B has 2× non-participating. At a $6 million equity exit, which statement is correct?

  1. A pays the investor $2 million; B pays $4 million, leaving less for common.
  2. Both pay the investor $1.2 million because the ownership percentage is the same.
  3. A pays $3.2 million and B pays $5.2 million by adding conversion to preference.
  4. B pays $2 million because the second preference multiple applies only in bankruptcy.
  5. Both pay the investor $2 million because the amount invested is identical.

Correct answer: A

Conversion yields 20% × $6m = $1.2m. Each investor instead takes its larger preference: $2m under A or $4m under B. Common receives $4m or $2m.

B. Why this choice falls short

Ignores preference.

C. Why this choice falls short

Adds two mutually exclusive choices.

D. Why this choice falls short

Invents a bankruptcy-only condition.

E. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the different multiples.

Related Week 8 deck

test whether the commitment funds the plan

Medium (4/8)

W8-S077 · Source slide 77

An equity offer commits $3.50 million: $2.50 million now and $1.00 million only after a product milestone. Existing cash is $0.80 million. Before that milestone, downside net cash outflow is $2.80 million and the required cash floor is $0.60 million. What is the strongest response?

  1. Accept because the total commitment exceeds the cash needed before the milestone.
  2. Count the conditional $1.00 million as current cash once the term sheet is signed.
  3. Accept if the valuation is high enough to offset the temporary cash shortfall.
  4. Borrow the shortfall without checking whether a lender will fund it in that scenario.
  5. Renegotiate timing or spending: accessible cash would fall $0.10 million below the floor.

Correct answer: E

$0.80m + $2.50m − $2.80m = $0.50m, below the $0.60m floor. The later $1.00m depends on achieving a milestone the company must first finance.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores timing.

B. Why this choice falls short

Converts a condition into cash.

C. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes price for liquidity.

D. Why this choice falls short

Assumes debt availability rather than demonstrating it.

Related Week 8 deck

act before the cash floor is threatened

Hard (6/8)

W8-S080 · Source slide 80

Assumptions: A raise closes four months after launch and funds the milestone. Today is month 0.

Cash reaches its minimum reserve in month 3. Pausing nonessential hiring extends that date to month 5 without delaying the product milestone in month 7. A bridge becomes drawable only in month 4. An existing investor is supportive but uncommitted. Which plan best protects the milestone?

  1. Start the equity raise now and keep the hiring schedule.
  2. Pause nonessential hiring and start the equity raise now.
  3. Wait until the product milestone to launch the equity raise.
  4. Keep hiring and use the bridge when it becomes drawable.
  5. Pause hiring and launch the equity raise in month 2.

Correct answer: B

The hiring pause moves the cash-floor deadline to month 5. Starting now closes the raise in month 4 under the stated assumption, leaving one month of headroom without delaying the product milestone.

A. Why this choice falls short

Closes after the month-3 deadline.

C. Why this choice falls short

Closes in month 11.

D. Why this choice falls short

Becomes available after the month-3 deadline.

E. Why this choice falls short

Closes in month 6, after even the extended deadline. Support is not a funding commitment.

Related Week 8 deck

A feasible financing package

Hard (8/8)

W8-S085 · Source slide 85

Founders currently own all of a company. Their financing must meet three requirements:

Provide $2.4 million of new cash at closing, including the required reserve; no internal cash is available.

Leave founders with at least 65% fully diluted ownership.

Preserve a founder majority of board seats.

Any loan charges 10% annual interest on the principal outstanding at the start of each year, paid at year-end. Principal is repaid in two equal installments at the ends of Years 1 and 2. First-year downside cash available for principal and interest payments is $420,000; required debt-service coverage is at least 1.40×. For any package that passes this first-year test, assume Year 2 coverage and all other lending conditions are satisfied. Packages without debt have no debt-service requirement.

Each package is fixed and cannot be combined with another. Equity is new primary common stock, with no pools, preferences, convertibles, fees, or other dilution.

PackageDebt at closingEquity at closingPre-money valueBoard and other terms
A$1.2 million$1.2 million$6 millionFounder majority
B$0.4 million$2.0 million$6 millionFounder majority
C$0$2.4 million$4 millionFounder majority
D$0$2.4 million$7.2 millionInvestor majority
E$0$1.6 million$6 millionFounder majority; $0.8 million of uncommitted funding may arrive later

Which package satisfies all funding, debt-service, ownership, and control requirements?

  1. Package A.
  2. Package B.
  3. Package C.
  4. Package D.
  5. Package E.

Correct answer: B

Package B supplies $0.4 million debt + $2 million equity = $2.4 million at closing. Founder ownership is $6/($6 + $2) = 75%, and the founders retain a board majority.

First-year debt service = $400,000/2 + 10% × $400,000 = $240,000. Coverage = $420,000/$240,000 = 1.75×, exceeding 1.40×.

PackageClosing cash sufficient?First-year debt coverageFounder ownershipFounder board majority?Meets all requirements?
AYes0.5833×; fails83.33%YesNo
BYes1.75×; passes75.00%YesYes
CYesNo debt62.50%; failsYesNo
DYesNo debt75.00%NoNo
ENoNo debt78.95% at closingYesNo

The task is feasibility under explicit constraints. It does not ask students to infer that the highest headline valuation or smallest dilution is automatically the best financing.

A. Why this choice falls short

Raises enough cash and preserves ownership and board control, but first-year debt service is $720,000 and coverage is only 0.5833×.

C. Why this choice falls short

Raises enough cash without debt, but founder ownership falls to $4/($4 + $2.4) = 62.5%, below the required 65%.

D. Why this choice falls short

Raises enough cash and leaves founders with 75% ownership, but fails the founder board-majority requirement.

E. Why this choice falls short

Preserves ownership and board control, but provides only $1.6 million at closing; uncommitted future cash does not fund the required $2.4 million today.

Related Week 8 deck

MM and the equity return

Easy (2/8)

W8-S089 · Source slide 89

Assumptions: D/E uses market values; all rates refer to the stated MM no-tax setting.

A firm's unlevered return is 12%, its cost of debt is 6%, and its D/E is 1.0. Under MM Proposition II (no taxes), the cost of equity is:

  1. 12%
  2. 6%
  3. 9%
  4. 18%
  5. 24%

Correct answer: D

R_e = 12% + (12% − 6%) × 1.0 = 18%. Debt/equity of 1.0 implies equal debt and equity weights; 0.5 × 18% + 0.5 × 6% = 12%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Omits the leverage premium.

B. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes the debt return.

C. Why this choice falls short

Averages the unlevered and debt rates.

E. Why this choice falls short

Doubles the unlevered return without subtracting the debt rate.

Source notes

Modigliani & Miller (1958), The Cost of Capital, Corporation Finance and the Theory of Investment.

Related Week 8 deck

compute WACC

Medium (4/8)

W8-S091 · Source slide 91

Assumptions: Market-value weights; current required returns; fully usable 25% interest tax benefit; a stable financing policy.

A firm is 60% equity and 40% debt. Cost of equity is 15%, pre-tax cost of debt is 8%, and the tax rate is 25%. Its WACC is:

  1. 11.0%
  2. 11.4%
  3. 12.2%
  4. 9.0%
  5. 13.5%

Correct answer: B

0.60 × 15% + 0.40 × 8% × (1 − 0.25) = 9.0% + 2.4% = 11.4%. Without a usable interest tax benefit, the same stated rates and weights give 12.2%.

A. Why this choice falls short

Do not follow the stated weighted calculation. The result is conditional on these inputs, not a universal startup hurdle rate.

C. Why this choice falls short

Omits the tax benefit.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits the debt contribution.

E. Why this choice falls short

Do not follow the stated weighted calculation. The result is conditional on these inputs, not a universal startup hurdle rate.

Source notes

OpenStax, Principles of Finance 2e, §17.3: WACC.

Related Week 8 deck

choose the financing package

Hard (6/8)

W8-S093 · Source slide 93

Assumptions: Hypothetical model outputs. All borrowing uses three-year amortization.

A founder seeks the highest modeled NPV while preserving the cash floor, requiring downside DSCR ≥1.50× when borrowing, and rejecting an investor board majority. All packages pass cash-floor tests. NPVs include financing effects. Which package fits?

  1. Staged growth: NPV $0.344m, no debt service, no outside ownership or investor board seats.
  2. All equity: NPV $0.688m, no debt service, investor holds one of three board seats.
  3. Mixed debt/equity: NPV $0.704m, DSCR 1.73×, investor holds one of three board seats.
  4. Higher debt: NPV $0.720m, DSCR 1.10×, no new equity or investor board seats.
  5. Alternative equity: NPV $0.730m, no debt service, investor holds two of three board seats.

Correct answer: C

C has the highest modeled NPV among packages satisfying every stated constraint. Its three-year debt schedule fits repayment capacity. The decision combines value, liquidity, and governance.

A. Why this choice falls short

Are feasible but have lower modeled NPV.

B. Why this choice falls short

Are feasible but have lower modeled NPV.

D. Why this choice falls short

Fails the debt-coverage policy.

E. Why this choice falls short

Violates the board constraint. C’s $0.016m advantage over B is small: higher financing frictions could reverse the choice.

Source notes

Damodaran, The Adjusted Present Value Approach; NVCA, Model Legal Documents: alternative negotiated financing provisions.

Related Week 8 deck

equity’s economic cost

Easy (0/8)

W8-S095 · Source slide 95

Why can equity become economically expensive even though it has no scheduled cash repayment?

  1. Because equity carries a high fixed interest rate
  2. Because equity must be repaid on a set maturity date
  3. Because it permanently shares future upside and may dilute control
  4. Because regulators tax equity far more heavily than debt
  5. Because issuing equity always triggers a clawback

Correct answer: C

Equity gives investors a continuing share of the company’s economic outcomes. In a successful business that share can become valuable; governance rights may also change. Equity also bears losses and has no ordinary debt-service schedule.

A. Why this choice falls short

Describe debt-like payment terms, not ordinary equity.

B. Why this choice falls short

Describe debt-like payment terms, not ordinary equity.

D. Why this choice falls short

Does not explain the ownership tradeoff.

E. Why this choice falls short

Is not a general rule. Equity is not universally the costliest or least suitable choice.

Related Week 8 deck

MM Proposition I

Easy (0/8)

W8-S097 · Source slide 97

Modigliani and Miller (1958) showed that in a world without taxes or frictions, firm value is:

  1. Independent of how the firm is financed
  2. Maximized by using as much debt as possible
  3. Maximized by using only equity
  4. Equal to the sum of interest payments
  5. Always higher for private than public firms

Correct answer: A

With the operating assets and investment policy held fixed, financing divides the same business cash flows among claims. Under MM’s frictionless assumptions, that division does not create value.

B. Why this choice falls short

Incorrectly prescribe an optimal mix in this benchmark.

C. Why this choice falls short

Incorrectly prescribe an optimal mix in this benchmark.

D. Why this choice falls short

Mistakes a financing payment for firm value.

E. Why this choice falls short

Makes listing status a universal source of value.

Source notes

Modigliani & Miller (1958), The Cost of Capital, Corporation Finance and the Theory of Investment.

Related Week 8 deck

the permanent-debt tax shield

Easy (2/8)

W8-S099 · Source slide 99

Assumptions: Simplified MM corporate-tax setting: fixed permanent debt, a constant tax rate, fully usable deductions, and no offsetting financing costs.

A profitable firm is worth $80M unlevered. It adds $30M of permanent debt at a 21% corporate tax rate. Under MM 1963, its levered value is about:

  1. $80.0M
  2. $86.3M
  3. $110.0M
  4. $50.0M
  5. $93.0M

Correct answer: B

V_L = $80m + 0.21 × $30m = $86.3m. The added $6.3m is the present value of the assumed interest tax shield, not the full loan proceeds.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the shield.

C. Why this choice falls short

Adds the debt proceeds as value.

D. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts debt as though calculating equity value.

E. Why this choice falls short

Does not follow the stated tax-shield formula.

Source notes

OpenStax, Principles of Finance 2e, §17.4: MM and corporate taxes.

Related Week 8 deck

tradeoff theory

Easy (0/8)

W8-S101 · Source slide 101

Assumptions: Use the simple tax-benefit/distress-cost model and assume a differentiable interior optimum exists.

The tradeoff theory says the optimal amount of debt is the point where:

  1. Debt reaches a full 100% of the total capital structure
  2. The firm carries no debt whatsoever on its books
  3. The cost of debt exactly equals the cost of equity
  4. The interest tax shield is pushed as large as it can possibly go
  5. The marginal tax shield meets the marginal distress cost

Correct answer: E

At an interior optimum in this simplified model, the next increment of debt adds as much tax-shield value as expected distress cost.

A. Why this choice falls short

Maximize debt or tax benefits without the associated costs.

B. Why this choice falls short

Can be optimal in other cases, but is not the interior condition specified here.

C. Why this choice falls short

Equates two required returns rather than marginal value effects.

D. Why this choice falls short

Maximize debt or tax benefits without the associated costs.

Source notes

OpenStax, Principles of Finance 2e, §17.5: financial distress and capital structure.

Related Week 8 deck

the pecking order

Easy (0/8)

W8-S103 · Source slide 103

Under the pecking order theory, a firm with a choice prefers to finance in which order?

  1. Internal funds, then debt, then equity
  2. Equity, then debt, then internal funds
  3. Debt, then equity, then internal funds
  4. Equity first, always, to preserve cash
  5. Whichever source looks cheapest that quarter

Correct answer: A

The classic information-asymmetry model prefers internal funding, then relatively safe debt, then equity when external funds are needed.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reverse elements of the order.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reverse elements of the order.

D. Why this choice falls short

Turns equity into a universal first choice.

E. Why this choice falls short

Ignores the information costs motivating the theory. This preference does not override financing availability or repayment capacity.

Source notes

Myers & Majluf (1984), Corporate Financing and Investment Decisions.

Related Week 8 deck

pre-revenue constraints

Easy (1/8)

W8-S105 · Source slide 105

Why can the traditional pecking order break down for a pre-revenue startup?

  1. Startups have effectively unlimited internal funds
  2. Banks compete aggressively to lend to pre-revenue startups today
  3. Limited retained earnings and debt capacity can push the company toward equity-like financing sooner
  4. Equity happens to be the cheapest capital for startups
  5. Startups are legally barred from ever issuing debt

Correct answer: C

A preference for internal cash or debt is not enough when neither is available at a sustainable scale. Founder resources, customers, grants, or equity-like financing may fit earlier.

A. Why this choice falls short

Assumes funds that may not exist.

B. Why this choice falls short

Overstates lender appetite.

D. Why this choice falls short

Incorrectly declares equity universally cheapest.

E. Why this choice falls short

Invents a legal prohibition.

Related Week 8 deck

asset substitution

Easy (0/8)

W8-S107 · Source slide 107

Jensen and Meckling (1976) identified an agency cost of debt in which levered shareholders may:

  1. Always choose to repay their outside lenders ahead of schedule
  2. Refuse to pay any dividend at all for a full decade
  3. Drive the firm's cost of equity all the way to zero
  4. Eliminate every monitoring and bonding cost entirely
  5. Shift to riskier projects that benefit them, not lenders

Correct answer: E

Risk shifting can improve shareholders’ upside while exposing existing lenders to more loss. It can reduce total company value and motivates monitoring and contractual protections.

A. Why this choice falls short

Are not the identified incentive problem.

B. Why this choice falls short

Are not the identified incentive problem.

C. Why this choice falls short

Is not an effect of leverage.

D. Why this choice falls short

Incorrectly eliminates agency costs. Shareholders still bear losses; the conflict concerns how the change in risk reallocates payoffs.

Source notes

Jensen & Meckling (1976), Theory of the Firm.

Related Week 8 deck

new-firm financing evidence

Easy (0/8)

W8-S110 · Source slide 110

Robb and Robinson (2014) found that new firms, contrary to the common view, rely substantially on:

  1. Only friends-and-family money at the start
  2. Government grants far above all other sources
  3. Formal bank debt, often personally backed
  4. No outside capital of any kind whatsoever
  5. Public equity markets right from the first day

Correct answer: C

Formal bank finance was important in the study’s broad new-firm sample, including financing connected to owners personally. The empirical finding challenges an “only friends and family” account.

A. Why this choice falls short

Do not describe the study’s main finding. The result does not establish that debt is available, advisable, or dominant for every VC-oriented startup.

B. Why this choice falls short

Do not describe the study’s main finding. The result does not establish that debt is available, advisable, or dominant for every VC-oriented startup.

D. Why this choice falls short

Do not describe the study’s main finding. The result does not establish that debt is available, advisable, or dominant for every VC-oriented startup.

E. Why this choice falls short

Do not describe the study’s main finding. The result does not establish that debt is available, advisable, or dominant for every VC-oriented startup.

Source notes

Robb & Robinson (2014), The Capital Structure Decisions of New Firms; NBER working-paper record.

Related Week 8 deck

the venture-debt downside

Easy (1/8)

W8-S112 · Source slide 112

Assumptions: Compare the listed situations. Where acceleration occurs, assume the agreement validly requires early repayment.

Venture debt is most dangerous to a startup when:

  1. The company is comfortably growing well ahead of its plan
  2. Market interest rates fall part way through the term
  3. The company has just closed a large financing round
  4. Growth stalls and a breached covenant forces acceleration
  5. The lender's warrants expire without being exercised

Correct answer: D

D combines an operating shortfall with a contractual demand for earlier repayment. That can force an urgent financing or restructuring when bargaining power is weak.

A. Why this choice falls short

Generally improve the described financing position.

B. Why this choice falls short

May reduce floating-rate interest expense.

C. Why this choice falls short

Generally improve the described financing position.

E. Why this choice falls short

Removes potential warrant dilution. None describes the same immediate cash crisis. Acceleration depends on the actual agreement and remedies; a breach does not always trigger it automatically.

Source notes

SVB, How does venture debt work? Collateral, covenants, and lender remedies.

Related Week 8 deck

wealth and control

Easy (0/8)

W8-S114 · Source slide 114

Assumptions: Interpret the question within Wasserman’s wealth/control framework; outcomes vary across companies and founders.

Wasserman (2012) found that founders who raise venture capital tend to:

  1. Retain their CEO control far more often than others
  2. Build more valuable firms but lose CEO control more often
  3. Earn strictly less money on average than bootstrappers do
  4. Avoid dilution of their stake across the rounds
  5. Never keep a board seat after a CEO succession

Correct answer: B

B best captures the intended Rich vs. King tradeoff: external resources can support a more valuable venture while reducing founder control. Treat it as a broad descriptive teaching statement, not a causal promise from raising VC.

A. Why this choice falls short

Runs against the stated tradeoff.

C. Why this choice falls short

Assumes dilution necessarily reduces dollar wealth.

D. Why this choice falls short

Ignores ownership dilution.

E. Why this choice falls short

Overstates the loss of a board role after CEO succession.

Source notes

Wasserman (2012), author interview on The Founder’s Dilemmas and Rich vs. King.

Related Week 8 deck

keep APV internally consistent

Easy (2/8)

W8-S118 · Source slide 118

A project has an unlevered operating value of $8.0 million. Separately estimated present values are $0.4 million of usable tax shields, $0.3 million of incremental distress costs, and $0.1 million of issuance costs. None is included in the $8.0 million. What is APV?

  1. $8.4 million.
  2. $8.8 million.
  3. $8.0 million.
  4. $7.6 million.
  5. $8.1 million.

Correct answer: C

$8.0m + $0.4m − $0.3m − $0.1m = $8.0m. In this hypothetical, financing benefits exactly offset financing costs.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores both costs.

B. Why this choice falls short

Adds the shield twice and ignores costs.

D. Why this choice falls short

Subtracts costs but omits the shield.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits issuance costs.

Source notes

Damodaran, The Adjusted Present Value Approach.

Related Week 8 deck

Startup CAPM from two public comparables

Hard (7/8)

P099 · New quantitative practice

Two comparable firms have equity betas of 1.68 and 1.44, with market debt/equity ratios of 0.50 and 0.25, respectively. Use a 25% tax rate, zero debt beta, and the standard tax-adjusted beta unlevering relation. Average the two unlevered betas equally, then relever at the startup’s target debt/equity ratio of 0.30. The risk-free rate is 4.0% and market equity risk premium is 5.5%. Assume no extra premium. What CAPM cost of equity results, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 11.85%
  2. 12.20%
  3. 10.69%
  4. 6.24%
  5. 12.58%

Correct answer: B

Unlever each beta: βu=βe/[1+(1−T)D/E]. Equal-weight average βu = 1.217225. Relevered βe = 1.217225×[1+.75×0.3] = 1.491100. Cost of equity = 0.04+1.491100×0.055 = 12.20%. This estimates systematic risk, not every startup-specific risk.

A. Why this choice falls short

This inserts a debt/value weight into a beta relation that requires debt/equity.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses asset beta directly and omits relevering at the target debt/equity ratio.

D. Why this choice falls short

The equity risk premium is already net of the risk-free rate; subtracting it again understates the premium.

E. Why this choice falls short

This averages levered peer betas without adjusting for leverage differences and the target capital structure.

Related Week 8 deck

WACC with market weights and usable tax shields

Medium (4/8)

P100 · New quantitative practice

A company has equity market value of $28 million and debt market value of $12 million. Book equity is $14 million. Its cost of equity is 16%, pre-tax debt cost is 9.0%, and tax rate is 25%. Assume interest deductions are fully usable now, no preferred equity exists, and this capital mix is the target structure. What WACC should discount operating FCFF of matching risk, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 11.73%
  2. 11.38%
  3. 13.90%
  4. 13.22%
  5. 10.42%

Correct answer: D

E/V = 28/40; D/V = 12/40. After-tax debt cost = 0.09×.75. WACC = (28/40)×0.16+(12/40)×0.09×.75 = 13.22%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses book equity rather than market-value capital weights.

B. Why this choice falls short

This uses equal capital weights despite unequal market values.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the usable interest tax shield.

E. Why this choice falls short

This applies the tax shield to equity as well as debt.

Related Week 8 deck

Debt capacity and the remaining equity raise

Hard (7/8)

P101 · New quantitative practice

A company needs $3.2 million of new funding and can supply $0.5 million internally. Its Year 1–3 cash available for debt service is $0.84, $0.70, and $0.57 million. A new three-year loan repays one-third of original principal at each year-end and charges 10% annual interest on beginning-of-year principal. The lender requires debt-service coverage of at least 1.5× each year. There is no existing debt, balloon payment, or other debt limit. Using maximum feasible debt, how much equity must be raised, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $1.66 million
  2. $1.82 million
  3. $2.16 million
  4. $1.41 million
  5. $1.04 million

Correct answer: A

For original loan D, debt service in year t equals D/3 + 0.1×D×[1−(t−1)/3]. Each year implies a maximum D of 1.2923, 1.1667, 1.0364 million. Use the smallest, 1.0364. Required equity = 3.2−0.5−1.0364 = $1.66 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This charges interest on the original principal in every year rather than the declining beginning-of-year balance.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the internal funding already available.

D. Why this choice falls short

This sizes debt from Year 1 alone and ignores the more restrictive later year.

E. Why this choice falls short

This is maximum debt capacity, not the residual equity need.

Related Week 8 deck

APV with a finite interest tax shield

Hard (6/8)

P102 · New quantitative practice

A project’s unlevered value today is $18.0 million. It will be financed partly by $5.0 million of fixed interest-only debt outstanding for 4 years, repaid at maturity. The annual debt rate is 8%, the tax rate is 25%, and interest deductions are fully usable each year. Discount the annual tax shields at the debt rate. Financing creates a one-time $0.3 million fee today. Ignore other financing effects. What is adjusted present value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $18.95 million
  2. $18.10 million
  3. $18.33 million
  4. $18.03 million
  5. $23.03 million

Correct answer: D

Annual tax shield = 5×0.08×.25 = 0.1000. PV(shields) = that annual amount × [1−(1+0.08)^(−4)]/0.08 = 0.3312. APV = unlevered value + PV(shields) − financing fee = $18.03 million. Principal repayment is not an interest deduction.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies the permanent-debt tax-shield shortcut to debt that ends at maturity.

B. Why this choice falls short

This sums tax shields without discounting them.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the financing fee.

E. Why this choice falls short

Debt proceeds are financing, not an additional increment to project value.

Related Week 8 deck

Startup CAPM from two public comparables

Hard (7/8)

P103 · New quantitative practice

Two comparable firms have equity betas of 1.80 and 1.50, with market debt/equity ratios of 0.60 and 0.25, respectively. Use a 25% tax rate, zero debt beta, and the standard tax-adjusted beta unlevering relation. Average the two unlevered betas equally, then relever at the startup’s target debt/equity ratio of 0.40. The risk-free rate is 4.2% and market equity risk premium is 6.0%. Assume no extra premium. What CAPM cost of equity results, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 11.71%
  2. 7.13%
  3. 14.10%
  4. 13.32%
  5. 13.97%

Correct answer: E

Unlever each beta: βu=βe/[1+(1−T)D/E]. Equal-weight average βu = 1.252269. Relevered βe = 1.252269×[1+.75×0.4] = 1.627949. Cost of equity = 0.042+1.627949×0.06 = 13.97%. This estimates systematic risk, not every startup-specific risk.

A. Why this choice falls short

This uses asset beta directly and omits relevering at the target debt/equity ratio.

B. Why this choice falls short

The equity risk premium is already net of the risk-free rate; subtracting it again understates the premium.

C. Why this choice falls short

This averages levered peer betas without adjusting for leverage differences and the target capital structure.

D. Why this choice falls short

This inserts a debt/value weight into a beta relation that requires debt/equity.

Related Week 8 deck

WACC with market weights and usable tax shields

Medium (4/8)

P104 · New quantitative practice

A company has equity market value of $36 million and debt market value of $14 million. Book equity is $18 million. Its cost of equity is 17%, pre-tax debt cost is 9.5%, and tax rate is 25%. Assume interest deductions are fully usable now, no preferred equity exists, and this capital mix is the target structure. What WACC should discount operating FCFF of matching risk, expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. 11.18%
  2. 14.90%
  3. 12.68%
  4. 14.24%
  5. 12.06%

Correct answer: D

E/V = 36/50; D/V = 14/50. After-tax debt cost = 0.095×.75. WACC = (36/50)×0.17+(14/50)×0.095×.75 = 14.24%.

A. Why this choice falls short

This applies the tax shield to equity as well as debt.

B. Why this choice falls short

This omits the usable interest tax shield.

C. Why this choice falls short

This uses book equity rather than market-value capital weights.

E. Why this choice falls short

This uses equal capital weights despite unequal market values.

Related Week 8 deck

Debt capacity and the remaining equity raise

Hard (7/8)

P105 · New quantitative practice

A company needs $3.8 million of new funding and can supply $0.6 million internally. Its Year 1–3 cash available for debt service is $1.02, $0.84, and $0.66 million. A new three-year loan repays one-third of original principal at each year-end and charges 12% annual interest on beginning-of-year principal. The lender requires debt-service coverage of at least 1.4× each year. There is no existing debt, balloon payment, or other debt limit. Using maximum feasible debt, how much equity must be raised, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $1.94 million
  2. $2.16 million
  3. $2.54 million
  4. $1.26 million
  5. $1.59 million

Correct answer: A

For original loan D, debt service in year t equals D/3 + 0.12×D×[1−(t−1)/3]. Each year implies a maximum D of 1.6071, 1.4516, 1.2628 million. Use the smallest, 1.2628. Required equity = 3.8−0.6−1.2628 = $1.94 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

This charges interest on the original principal in every year rather than the declining beginning-of-year balance.

C. Why this choice falls short

This omits the internal funding already available.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is maximum debt capacity, not the residual equity need.

E. Why this choice falls short

This sizes debt from Year 1 alone and ignores the more restrictive later year.

Related Week 8 deck

APV with a finite interest tax shield

Hard (6/8)

P106 · New quantitative practice

A project’s unlevered value today is $23.0 million. It will be financed partly by $6.0 million of fixed interest-only debt outstanding for 5 years, repaid at maturity. The annual debt rate is 9%, the tax rate is 25%, and interest deductions are fully usable each year. Discount the annual tax shields at the debt rate. Financing creates a one-time $0.4 million fee today. Ignore other financing effects. What is adjusted present value, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $23.53 million
  2. $24.10 million
  3. $23.13 million
  4. $23.28 million
  5. $29.13 million

Correct answer: C

Annual tax shield = 6×0.09×.25 = 0.1350. PV(shields) = that annual amount × [1−(1+0.09)^(−5)]/0.09 = 0.5251. APV = unlevered value + PV(shields) − financing fee = $23.13 million. Principal repayment is not an interest deduction.

A. Why this choice falls short

This omits the financing fee.

B. Why this choice falls short

This applies the permanent-debt tax-shield shortcut to debt that ends at maturity.

D. Why this choice falls short

This sums tax shields without discounting them.

E. Why this choice falls short

Debt proceeds are financing, not an additional increment to project value.

Related Week 8 deck

Expected cash flow and a systematic-risk discount rate

Hard (6/8)

P107 · New quantitative practice

A startup project costs $4.0 million today and pays only at the end of Year 3. The business succeeds with probability 65%, paying $10.0 million; otherwise it pays $1.0 million. These are the only cash flows and the probabilities already capture project failure. An asset beta of 1.4, risk-free rate of 4%, and market equity risk premium of 6% are appropriate for discounting these expected unlevered cash flows under the model. There is no debt or tax adjustment. What is project NPV, expressed in millions and rounded to two decimal places?

  1. $2.85 million
  2. $0.82 million
  3. −$1.86 million
  4. $4.82 million
  5. $3.04 million

Correct answer: B

Expected Year 3 cash flow = .65×10+.35×1 = 6.85. CAPM rate = .04+1.4×.06 = 12.40%. NPV = −4+6.85/(1+0.124)³ = $0.82 million. Do not insert failure probability a second time as an arbitrary discount-rate increment.

A. Why this choice falls short

This ignores the time value and systematic risk of the future expected payoff.

C. Why this choice falls short

This adds the failure probability to the discount rate even though failure is already included in expected cash flow.

D. Why this choice falls short

This is the PV of expected proceeds before the initial cost.

E. Why this choice falls short

This discounts only the success payoff and ignores the stated failure probability.

Related Week 8 deck

Week 9: Pitch Deck Mastery

A read-alone deck

Easy (1/8)

W9-S005 · Source slide 5

A deck is being forwarded internally at a fund with no founder attached. Which design principle matters most for that read?

  1. Dense appendix slides, so every possible question is answered somewhere in the file.
  2. Heavy animation and build effects that guide the eye through each argument in order.
  3. A long narrative on the problem slide that establishes deep emotional context first.
  4. Each slide is legible on its own, because the reader has no narrator to fill in gaps.
  5. A password and tight sharing controls, so only the intended partner can open it.

Correct answer: D

The read-alone test governs: with no narrator, each slide must carry its own meaning at a glance.

Each slide needs enough context to be understood when the founder is absent.

A. Why this choice falls short

Makes the appendix carry the entire argument.

B. Why this choice falls short

Relies on a guided playback.

C. Why this choice falls short

Adds length without ensuring clarity.

E. Why this choice falls short

Addresses access, not whether a reader can understand the evidence.

Related Week 9 deck

Does the outcome fit the fund?

Medium (4/8)

W9-S011 · Source slide 11

A $150m VC fund would own 18% immediately after a financing. Future rounds are expected to dilute that stake by 25% in total. A plausible exit would produce $400m available to all equity holders, paid pro rata. Ignore fund fees and carry.

How much would the fund receive, and what fraction of its fund size would that represent?

  1. $72m received; 48% of the fund’s size.
  2. $54m received; 13.5% of the fund’s size.
  3. $18m received; 12% of the fund’s size.
  4. $96m received; 64% of the fund’s size.
  5. $54m received; 36% of the fund’s size.

Correct answer: E

Exit ownership = 18% × 75% = 13.5%. Company proceeds to the fund = 13.5% × $400m = $54m.

$54m / $150m = 36% of fund size, before fund-level fees and carry. The result may be meaningful without returning the whole fund.

A. Why this choice falls short

Ignores dilution.

B. Why this choice falls short

Uses the ownership percentage as the fund-size comparison.

C. Why this choice falls short

Applies dilution incorrectly.

D. Why this choice falls short

Increases the original stake instead of diluting it.

Related Week 9 deck

Research on investor selection

Easy (0/8)

W9-S017 · Source slide 17

In Gompers and colleagues’ survey of venture capitalists, which factor did respondents generally rate above business characteristics in investment selection?

  1. The founding team, which surveyed VCs rate above product or technology and blame most for failure.
  2. The size of the total addressable market as stated on the market slide, since a larger market is assumed to guarantee a larger outcome.
  3. The polish and clarity of the deck's visual design and layout.
  4. The presence of other well-known investors already committed to the round.
  5. The valuation the founder is asking for relative to comparable deals.

Correct answer: A

The survey supports A. It describes respondents’ reported selection priorities; the AngelList experiment separately measured investor interest.

Evidence about a sample is not a universal ranking for all seed investments.

B. Why this choice falls short

Treats market size as a guarantee.

C. Why this choice falls short

Concerns visual presentation.

D. Why this choice falls short

Concerns other investors.

E. Why this choice falls short

Concerns price. Each can matter in a deal, but none is the factor the surveyed VCs generally placed first here.

Related Week 9 deck

Obtainable ARR versus annual market size

Hard (6/8)

W9-S027 · Source slide 27

A startup's annual SAM is $120m. It begins Year 3 with 300 recurring customers; 20% leave during the year. Ten fully productive sellers each add 18 new recurring customers by year-end. Those new customers remain at year-end. Each active customer then pays $30,000 in recurring annual fees.

What are Year 3 ending ARR and its share of the annual SAM?

  1. ARR $9.0m; share of annual SAM 7.5%.
  2. ARR $12.6m; share of annual SAM 10.5%.
  3. ARR $14.4m; share of annual SAM 12.0%.
  4. ARR $10.8m; share of annual SAM 9.0%.
  5. ARR $5.4m; share of annual SAM 4.5%.

Correct answer: B

Retained beginning customers = 300 × 80% = 240. New customers = 10 × 18 = 180. Ending active customers = 420.

Ending ARR = 420 × $30,000 = $12.6m; $12.6m / $120m = 10.5%. In-year recognized revenue requires the actual start and departure dates.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses only the opening count.

C. Why this choice falls short

Ignores churn.

D. Why this choice falls short

Incorrectly churns the new customers as well.

E. Why this choice falls short

Includes only new customers.

Related Week 9 deck

Founder-market fit

Medium (4/8)

W9-S032 · Source slide 32

A founder must reconcile two findings: VCs select on the team, yet the business outlasts the team. How should the team slide reflect both?

  1. List every degree and employer for each founder, since credentials are what investors screen on.
  2. Minimize the team slide, because the business is what finally determines the outcome.
  3. Replace the team slide with a traction slide, since metrics are more objective than people.
  4. Feature advisors and investors prominently, because social proof settles the team question.
  5. Frame each founder's background as evidence they are right to build this specific business.

Correct answer: E

E links founder capabilities to the business. Credentials, metrics, and advisors can be useful, but none replaces explaining that fit.

Frame the team as founder-market fit: why these people are right for this specific business.

A. Why this choice falls short

Lists credentials without connecting them to the work.

B. Why this choice falls short

Remove relevant team evidence.

C. Why this choice falls short

Remove relevant team evidence.

D. Why this choice falls short

Treats prominent names as a substitute for operating capability. The finding about business persistence comes from firms that reached an IPO; it does not make every team replaceable.

Related Week 9 deck

Growth can conceal cohort contraction

Medium (4/8)

W9-S036 · Source slide 36

A company starts the year with $1m ARR. The original customer cohort ends with $0.9m ARR after cancellations, downgrades, and expansion. New customers add $0.5m ending ARR. Definitions are consistent; no acquisitions or currency effects occur.

Which statement accurately describes both growth and retention?

  1. ARR grows 40%; NRR is 140%; the original cohort expands.
  2. ARR grows 50%; NRR is 90%; the original cohort contracts.
  3. ARR grows 40%; NRR is 90%; the original cohort contracts.
  4. ARR falls 10%; NRR is 90%; the original cohort contracts.
  5. ARR grows 40%; NRR is 50%; the original cohort contracts.

Correct answer: C

Total ending ARR is $0.9m + $0.5m = $1.4m, giving 40% growth. NRR measures only the opening cohort: $0.9m / $1m = 90%.

New business more than offsets a shrinking original cohort. The deck should disclose both facts and investigate retention and replacement acquisition costs.

A. Why this choice falls short

Includes new customers in NRR.

B. Why this choice falls short

Reports new ARR alone as total growth.

D. Why this choice falls short

Omits new customers.

E. Why this choice falls short

Substitutes new-customer ARR for retained cohort ARR.

Related Week 9 deck

The amount raised must fund the cash plan

Medium (4/8)

W9-S042 · Source slide 42

The cash low point occurs just before a product milestone. Cumulative operating and investment cash use to that date is $2.4m in the base case; the defined downside adds $0.5m. Existing unrestricted cash is $0.6m. Financing fees of $0.1m are paid at closing and the required cash floor is $0.4m. These amounts do not overlap.

What gross equity raise covers this downside plan and the cash floor?

  1. A gross raise of $1.8 million.
  2. A gross raise of $2.3 million.
  3. A gross raise of $2.7 million.
  4. A gross raise of $2.8 million.
  5. A gross raise of $3.4 million.

Correct answer: D

Gross raise = $2.4m + $0.5m + $0.1m + $0.4m − $0.6m = $2.8m.

The remaining $0.4m is a required reserve, not a spending category. This amount covers the stated downside, not every possible outcome.

A. Why this choice falls short

Funds only base cash use net of existing cash.

B. Why this choice falls short

Omits fees and floor.

C. Why this choice falls short

Omits fees.

E. Why this choice falls short

Omits existing usable cash.

Related Week 9 deck

Turn enterprise value into an equity ask

Medium (4/8)

W9-S048 · Source slide 48

A startup's DCF indicates $18m operating EV and relevant comps indicate $16m–$20m EV on the same date. The startup has $1m excess cash and $3m debt, with no other claims. A proposed primary equity round uses the $18m EV midpoint and raises $4m. No debt is repaid at closing, no pool changes or conversions occur, and all other terms are held fixed.

What pre-money equity value and new-investor ownership follow?

  1. Pre-money equity $18m; new investors own 18.18%.
  2. Pre-money equity $16m; new investors own 25.00%.
  3. Pre-money equity $20m; new investors own 16.67%.
  4. Pre-money equity $16m; new investors own 16.67%.
  5. Pre-money equity $16m; new investors own 20.00%.

Correct answer: E

Pre-money equity = $18m EV + $1m excess cash − $3m debt = $16m. Post-money equity = $16m + $4m = $20m. Ownership sold = $4m / $20m = 20%.

The arithmetic does not prove the midpoint is the right negotiated price; peer quality, DCF assumptions, and security rights still need support.

A. Why this choice falls short

Uses EV as equity.

B. Why this choice falls short

Divides by pre-money.

C. Why this choice falls short

Reverses the cash/debt bridge.

D. Why this choice falls short

Uses a post-money denominator inconsistent with the stated $4m raise.

Related Week 9 deck

The pitch deck’s job

Easy (0/8)

W9-S057 · Source slide 57

A founder has already built a market model, a unit-economics model, and a cap table. What is the distinct job of the pitch deck?

  1. To replace those models with rounder, simpler numbers that are easier to say out loud in a room.
  2. To compress the conclusions of that work into a slide sequence an investor can evaluate quickly.
  3. To showcase visual design and animation, since a polished deck is what actually persuades most investors.
  4. To support the live meeting only, because investors almost never read decks on their own time.
  5. To document the full product roadmap in detail for the technical diligence team to review later.

Correct answer: B

The deck is a compression layer: it carries the findings of the market, economics, and financing work into a form an investor reads in minutes.

The deck is where every prior FIN143 analysis gets compressed into an investor-legible sequence.

A. Why this choice falls short

Simplifying presentation should not replace supported model results with invented round numbers. The deck summarizes the analysis while remaining consistent with it.

C. Why this choice falls short

Design can make evidence easier to follow, but attractive graphics do not replace a credible business, economics, or financing case.

D. Why this choice falls short

Investors may read and forward a deck without the founder present. It needs enough context to stand on its own.

E. Why this choice falls short

A detailed product roadmap belongs in supporting diligence materials when relevant. The main pitch communicates the investment case.

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A bottom-up SAM

Easy (2/8)

W9-S059 · Source slide 59

Practice convention

Treat all 15,000 target companies as within the serviceable segment; the $80,000 is annual revenue per company. No additional reachability restriction is assumed.

A B2B startup identifies 15,000 target companies and expects an average annual contract of $80,000. What is the bottoms-up SAM?

  1. $120 million, because only a tenth of the target companies will ever be reachable.
  2. $1.2 billion, from 15,000 companies multiplied by the $80,000 average contract value.
  3. $12 billion, scaling the figure up to reflect expansion revenue over the customer's life.
  4. It cannot be computed without an industry report stating the global market size.
  5. $80 million, which is the realistic three-year share the company can actually win.

Correct answer: B

15,000 x $80,000 = $1.2 billion. A bottoms-up SAM multiplies reachable customers by price.

The annual serviceable opportunity is not a forecast of what this company will capture.

A. Why this choice falls short

The question supplies 15,000 serviceable target companies. Reducing that count by 90% introduces an unsupported assumption.

C. Why this choice falls short

The requested market size is annual. Multiplying by assumed lifetime expansion mixes annual opportunity with lifetime customer value.

D. Why this choice falls short

A bottom-up estimate can use the count of serviceable customers and annual contract value; a global industry total is not required.

E. Why this choice falls short

A company-specific three-year obtainable share would be SOM. The data establish annual SAM, not a forecast of what this startup wins.

Related Week 9 deck

Business and team persistence

Easy (0/8)

W9-S061 · Source slide 61

Kaplan, Sensoy and Stromberg (2009) tracked firms from business plan to IPO. What did they find about the team versus the business over time?

  1. Both the team and the business line changed constantly, so neither is a reliable bet.
  2. The team stayed remarkably stable while the business line pivoted repeatedly.
  3. The business line stayed remarkably stable while management turned over substantially.
  4. The team and the business line evolved together in lockstep at every stage.
  5. Neither the team nor the business changed much once the first plan was written.

Correct answer: C

Business lines were remarkably stable while management turned over, so at the margin they argued for betting on the horse (the business).

This finding describes VC-backed firms that reached IPO, not the full population of startups.

A. Why this choice falls short

This reverses the reported stability of the business line in the studied firms. The study did not find constant changes in both dimensions.

B. Why this choice falls short

The reported pattern was relatively stable businesses with substantial management turnover, not stable teams and repeated business pivots.

D. Why this choice falls short

The evidence does not establish synchronized changes at every stage. It emphasizes different degrees of persistence in the business and team.

E. Why this choice falls short

This overlooks substantial management turnover. The finding is not that everything stayed unchanged.

Source notes

The result concerns the study's firms tracked toward IPO; it is not a claim about all startups or evidence that team quality never matters.

Related Week 9 deck

Traction and timing

Easy (1/8)

W9-S063 · Source slide 63

A traction slide reads: '4,000 users.' The deck already defines a user and explains how the count is measured. What additional information is needed to judge how quickly the company reached this total?

  1. A larger font and a bolder color so the figure dominates the slide visually.
  2. A comparison to the total addressable market to show how small 4,000 still is.
  3. A footnote explaining the definition of a user and how the metric is instrumented.
  4. A timeframe, so the investor can see how fast the company reached 4,000.
  5. A projection of how many users the company expects to have in five years.

Correct answer: D

Show the level, definition, period, and quality of traction together.

A. Why this choice falls short

Visual prominence does not supply the elapsed time needed to measure growth speed.

B. Why this choice falls short

Market share can help assess scale, but it does not reveal how long the company took to reach 4,000 users.

C. Why this choice falls short

Would also matter if the metric were undefined; it is already defined in this scenario.

E. Why this choice falls short

A future target does not establish the pace of growth already achieved. The historical timeframe is missing.

Related Week 9 deck

Simple runway

Easy (2/8)

W9-S065 · Source slide 65

A startup raises $3.6 million and burns $150,000 per month, with revenue too small to matter yet. What runway does the ask buy? Assume all raised cash is usable, burn is constant net cash burn, and there are no other cash flows or required reserve. Calculate time to zero cash.

  1. 18 months, once a standard cash buffer is held back from the raise.
  2. 12 months, because founders should plan to raise again within a year.
  3. 24 months, from $3.6 million divided by $150,000 of monthly burn.
  4. 30 months, spreading the raise across a longer path to the next round.
  5. Runway cannot be estimated from burn without knowing the revenue ramp.

Correct answer: C

$3,600,000 / $150,000 = 24 months of runway at the stated burn.

The 24 months is a constant-burn, zero-cash horizon. A cash floor or changing payments would shorten or otherwise alter it.

A. Why this choice falls short

The question explicitly excludes a required reserve. Imposing a standard buffer changes the assumptions.

B. Why this choice falls short

A sensible fundraising lead time and mathematical time to zero cash are different. Twelve months is not the runway implied by these figures.

D. Why this choice falls short

Thirty months requires $4.5 million at $150,000 monthly burn, more than the stated raise.

E. Why this choice falls short

Net burn already incorporates cash inflows and outflows, and the question holds it constant. The given information is sufficient for this simple runway calculation.

Related Week 9 deck

LTV and CAC

Easy (2/8)

W9-S067 · Source slide 67

A company reports CAC of $1,200 and LTV of $3,600. What is the LTV-to-CAC ratio, and how is it read against the common benchmark? Here LTV is estimated lifetime gross profit on a consistent customer basis.

  1. 3.0 to 1, which meets the rule-of-thumb threshold of roughly 3 to 1.
  2. 0.33 to 1, which means the company loses money on every customer it acquires.
  3. 4,320,000 to 1, multiplying the two figures together to size the opportunity.
  4. 3.0 to 1, which is far below the benchmark and signals broken unit economics.
  5. It cannot be assessed without knowing the total number of customers.

Correct answer: A

$3,600 / $1,200 = 3.0×, matching the stated screening heuristic.

Meeting a rule of thumb does not establish profitability, reliable retention, or adequate cash.

B. Why this choice falls short

0.33 is CAC divided by LTV, the inverse of the requested ratio. This reversal does not establish a customer-level loss.

C. Why this choice falls short

Multiplying the two dollar values produces no meaningful LTV-to-CAC ratio. Divide lifetime gross profit per customer by acquisition cost per customer.

D. Why this choice falls short

The arithmetic is correct, but 3.0× matches the stated roughly 3× heuristic rather than falling far below it.

E. Why this choice falls short

Both inputs are already on a consistent per-customer basis. The total customer count is unnecessary for their ratio.

Related Week 9 deck

Forecast drivers

Easy (1/8)

W9-S069 · Source slide 69

A five-year revenue projection rises from $0 to $80 million with a smooth curve and no supporting detail. Why do investors distrust it?

  1. The ending number is too small to represent a venture-scale outcome worth funding.
  2. Five years is too short a horizon; investors expect ten-year projections at seed.
  3. Projections should never appear in a seed deck because the future is unknowable.
  4. The curve should be linear, since venture revenue grows at a constant rate.
  5. The curve has no driver assumptions, so the number is asserted rather than built.

Correct answer: E

A hockey stick with no drivers (customers, price, conversion, retention) is an assertion. Investors trust projections built from assumptions they can interrogate.

Projections earn trust when they are built from explicit drivers, not drawn as a smooth curve.

A. Why this choice falls short

The problem is unsupported assumptions, not an established minimum revenue figure. An $80 million endpoint needs an operating basis.

B. Why this choice falls short

A longer horizon would not fix the missing customer, pricing, conversion, and retention assumptions.

C. Why this choice falls short

Forecasts can be useful when their assumptions and uncertainty are explicit. An unknowable future does not make all modeling pointless.

D. Why this choice falls short

Venture revenue need not follow a constant or linear growth path. The required improvement is a driver-based forecast, not a different curve shape.

Related Week 9 deck

A milestone-based ask

Easy (1/8)

W9-S071 · Source slide 71

A founder's ask slide says only: 'Raising $5M.' Which addition most improves it in the eyes of an investor?

  1. The founder's personal financial stake, to prove commitment to the raise.
  2. A countdown of how many days remain before the round closes to the public.
  3. The milestone the $5 million reaches and the runway it buys to get there.
  4. A detailed org chart of every hire the company plans to make with the money.
  5. The names of funds that have already passed on the round, for transparency.

Correct answer: C

A strong ask ties the amount to a milestone and states the runway, showing the founder understands why this sum, for this long.

A complete ask states the amount, the runway it buys, and the milestone it reaches.

A. Why this choice falls short

Founder commitment may matter in diligence, but it does not explain why this operating plan needs $5 million.

B. Why this choice falls short

A closing deadline communicates urgency rather than the cash requirements or value-creating milestone.

D. Why this choice falls short

A hiring plan can support the budget, but an org chart alone does not connect the amount raised to a milestone and adequate runway.

E. Why this choice falls short

Prior investor decisions do not explain what the capital funds or how long it supports operations.

Related Week 9 deck

Instrument choice

Easy (1/8)

W9-S073 · Source slide 73

Why does the choice of instrument on the ask slide (SAFE, convertible note, or priced round) carry a signal beyond the dollar amount?

  1. Because the instrument mechanically determines the company's corporate tax rate for the following fiscal year and the one after it.
  2. Because the instrument reflects stage, negotiation complexity, legal/economic terms, and the tradeoffs the founder is choosing.
  3. Because investors are legally barred from funding anything other than priced equity rounds.
  4. Because the instrument sets the product roadmap the company must follow after closing.
  5. Because the instrument fixes the founder's salary for the duration of the runway.

Correct answer: B

Instrument choice depends on stage, investor expectations, legal/tax considerations, speed, governance, and dilution. It is a financing decision, not a sophistication score.

The instrument should fit the financing objective and terms; explain why it is appropriate for this round.

A. Why this choice falls short

The instrument does not mechanically set the company's corporate tax rate for the next two years. Tax consequences depend on applicable law and the transaction facts.

C. Why this choice falls short

Investors can use SAFEs, convertible notes, and priced equity where legally appropriate. There is no general rule limiting them to priced rounds.

D. Why this choice falls short

Funding documents can contain negotiated restrictions, but instrument choice alone does not prescribe a product roadmap.

E. Why this choice falls short

The instrument does not automatically fix founder compensation for the runway period. Compensation and approval rights require their own terms.

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